Index

What are the topics covered in Cisco 300-370 dumps exam? The Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks (300-370 WITSHOOT) exam is a 90 Minutes (60 – 70 questions) assessment in pass4itsure that is associated with the CCNP Wireless certification. New release Cisco 300-370 dumps exam CCNP Wireless certification guaranteed success. “Troubleshooting Cisco Wireless Enterprise Networks” is the exam name of Pass4itsure Cisco 300-370 dumps test which designed to help candidates prepare for and pass the Cisco 300-370 exam. The https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-370.html dumps Cisco CCIE Routing and Switching written exam validate that professionals have the expertise to: configure, validate, and troubleshoot complex enterprise network infrastructure; understand how infrastructure components interoperate; and translate functional requirements into specific device configurations.

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QUESTION 31
Which statement about the join process of the access point is true? Refer to the exhibit.

A. The time on the controller is outside of the certificates validity time interval, so the join phase failed.
B. The AP successfully joined the controller.
C. The AP moved from this controller to its primary controller.
D. The AP failed to join because the MAC address of the AP was not correct on the controller.
E. The controller rejected all discovery requests from the AP because they were not received on the management interface subnet.
300-370 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 32
Some users are experiencing inconsistent performance on their mobile devices as they move throughout the building when browsing the Internet. Which feature provides a more consistent user experiences?
A. low RSSI check
B. 802.11r
C. RX-SOP
D. optimized roaming
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 33
A mobile station in a factory contains an AP configured as a work group bridge that authenticates to a root AP using EAP-FAST. To be able to use the mobile station in further parts of the factory, another root AP is installed and also configured for EAP-FAST When the mobile station is attempting to roam to the other AP, it loses connection yet can still authenticate to the first one. What is the cause for the failed authentication on RAP2?
Refer to the exhibit.

QUESTION NO: 34
If you needed to replicate flow from a router and forward it in its native format to additional flow collectors, which Cascade device would you use?
A. Sensor
B. Express
C. Shark
D. Gateway
E. Gateway-VE
300-370 dumps Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 35
What is a benefit that Cascade provides that is not supported by most other network performance management solutions?
A. Identity integration to identify which users are logged into which client machines.
B. Integration with synthetic transaction tools to obtain response time information.
C. A fully functional CLI that is easier to use than a Web based GUI.
D. A Web based GUI that does not require a password or HTTPS connection allowing for easier connection.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 36
To which devices is it possible to send data directly to (not including flows from other Cascade devices)? (Select 2)
A. Sensor
B. Sensor-VE
C. Gateway
D. Profiler
E. Enterprise Profiler
F. Express
300-370 pdf Answer: C,F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 37
Which of the following statements is true regarding SNMP polling and NTP syncing among Cascade components?
A. Cascade Gateway’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP from a common source.
B. Cascade Profiler’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler, Cascade Gateway and Cascade Sensor sync NTP a common source.
C. Cascade Profiler’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler is the NTP source for Cascade Gateways and Cascade Sensors.
D. Cascade Gateway’s poll Netflow sources via SNMP, while Cascade Profiler is the NTP source for Cascade Gateways, Cascade Sensors and Cascade Sharks.
E. SNMP polling is not supported in Cascade.
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 38
You can apply a View within Cascade Pilot to a trace clip:
A. If both the trace clip and View support indexing.
B. If the trace clip is not indexed and the View does not support indexing.
C. Any time you like.
D. If the capture job is running.
300-370 vce Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 39
What are the features available in Cascade Pilot that are NOT available in Cascade Pilot Personal Edition (PE)? (Select 3)
A. Drill down from Cascade Profiler
B. Indexing files for fast analysis
C. Visual troubleshooting and analysis
D. Distributed capture and analysis (Cascade Shark appliance)
E. Application Transaction diagrams
Answer: A,D,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 40
What is lost by using sFlow and not NetFlow for Cascade?
A. Nothing; sFlow actually provides better data to Cascade since it is sampled packets and not just header data.
B. A loss of granularity as sFlow is sampled and doesn’t see every packet of a conversation.
C. Since Cascade takes the sampling rate of sFlow into account, nothing is lost.
D. sFlow should be configured to obtain granularity.
300-370 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 41
What two methods does the Profiler have for getting MAC address information? (Select 2)
A. SMTP integration
B. SNMP integration
C. DHCP integration
D. There is only one method of getting MAC address information.
E. Line monitoring for ARP requests
Answer: B,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 42
A capture job definition on Cascade Shark appliance may include:
A. A packet filter
B. A disk space allocation
C. One capture port or one aggregated port
D. Trend/indexing parameters
E. All of the above
300-370 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 43
When specifying the time-frame of a traffic report in Cascade Profiler, what happens when one selects a data resolution of automatic?
A. The Cascade Profiler determines the appropriate resolution to use, based on the time-frame selected.
B. The report runs from 1 minute flows if a flow list is selected from the report format options.
C. The resulting report indicates the data resolution the report was generated from.
D. The resulting report runs against Profiler periods instead of flow logs.
E. All of the above.
F. A, B, C only.
Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 44
To receive external notification for Cascade Profiler Alerts:
A. SMTP or SNMP must be configured.
B. I have to have an account on Cascade.
C. Lotus Notes has to be installed.
D. I need a Riverbed e-mail account.
300-370 pdf Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 45
What is the maximum number of flows a Profiler Express is licensed to process?
A. 25,000 flows per minute
B. 50,000 flows per minute
C. 75,000 flows per minute
D. 100,000 flows per minute
Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 46
When Cascade Pilot is connected to Cascade Shark:
A. Cascade Shark interfaces and captures job traces appear under the devices tab within the sources panel.
B. Cascade Shark interfaces appear under the devices tab of the sources panel AND Cascade Shark capture job traces appear under the files tab of the sources panel.
C. Cascade Shark interfaces and captures job traces appear in the views panel.
D. Cascade Shark interfaces must be selected from the home menu to begin a capture.
300-370 vce Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 47
How are trace clips created in Cascade Pilot? (Select 2)
A. Select a Capture Job, right-click, and select “Create Trace Clip”.
B. Drag a bar from a Bar Chart to the Capture Job.
C. Click the + button in the Capture Job item and select a time window.
D. Select a time window and apply a Cascade Pilot filter.
Answer: A,C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 48
Protocols that are typically monitored in TCP/IP networks by visibility tools include (Select 3):
A. SAN HBA Protocol
B. TCP Protocols such as HTTP and HTTPS
C. UDP Protocols such as SMTP and Video streaming
D. IPv4 Protocols including TCP, UDP, and ICMP
E. IPv4 Protocols such as x.25, TTY and TTL
300-370 exam Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 49
What is the maximum capacity of a Standard Cascade Profiler appliance in terms of the number of IP flows that it can process?
A. 100,000 Flows per Minute
B. 200,000 Flows per Minute
C. 300,000 Flows per Minute
D. 400,000 Flows per Minute
E. 500,000 Flows per Minute
F. 600,000 Flows per Minute
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 50
Which of the following are valid Cascade Profiler Report export formats? (Select 3)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. EDI
E. HTML
300-370 dumps Answer: B,C,E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 51
What are the Cascade Profiler Alert Levels?
A. Low and High
B. Emergency, Critical, Alert, Error, Warning, Notice, Informational, and Debug
C. Critical, Warning, and Informational
D. System Down, System Impaired, Attack, SLA/SLO Violation, and Security Policy Violation
E. Low, Med, and High
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 52
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, which Definitions can be used when running a query?
A. Applications
B. TCP Ports C.
Port Groups D.
QoS Name
E. Host Group Name
F. All the above
300-370 pdf Answer: F
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 53
What is the maximum number of 1GB capture ports that can be provisioned on the Cascade Shark appliance model CSK-03200?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
E. 12
Answer: D
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 54
On Cascade Profiler, Why would you want to create a generic group encompassing the 0.0.0.0/0 definition?
A. There is no reason to create this definition.
B. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the network that are not in other groups.
C. This definition can be used to identify hosts that have incorrect IP address assignments.
D. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the internal network that are not in other groups within the same group type.
E. This definition can be used to look for all hosts on the internal network that are not in other groups in any group type.
300-370 vce Answer: D
Explanation:
In the Cascade Profiler, what best describes a “Host Group”?
A. A logical collection of IP Addresses that can be grouped by region, application, and function.
B. A set of netflow collectors.
C. NetFlow senders.
D. A group of Ports.
E. A collection of MAC Addresses.
Answer: A
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 56
When flows in excess of the licensed limit are received by a Profiler what happens to them?
A. They are cached for later processing.
B. They are ignored/dropped.
C. The user is able to choose which flows to keep and which to ignore.
D. All flows are processed but an alert is sent to the user.
300-370 exam Answer: B
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 57
What is the maximum number of capture jobs that can be created on a Cascade Shark appliance?
A. 1
B. 4
C. Equal to the maximum number of capture ports on the appliance
D. One capture job per capture port
E. Unlimited
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 58
Which of the following pieces of information is required when configuring an Cascade Enterprise Profiler?
A. BGP AS number
B. IP address of Sensor
C. Default gateway of Internet router
D. Subnet mask for entire corporate network
E. Subnet mask for all Cascade Enterprise Profiler modules
300-370 dumps Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 59
Where are Application Names used within the Cascade Profiler GUI?
A. On Dashboards
B. In Reports
C. In User Defined Policies
D. In Application Performance Policies
E. All of the above
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 60
Within Cascade Profiler, how can you create a definition that includes list of tcp ports?
A. Definitions->Host Groups
B. Definitions->Applications->Layer-7
C. Definitions->Port Groups
D. Definitions->Port Names
E. Integration->Switch Port Discovery
300-370 pdf Answer: C
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 61
What are the primary differences between an Express and Standard Profiler?
A. There is no difference between an Express and Standard Profiler.
B. An Express Profiler has the option only for a built-in Sensor and cannot receive flow data.
C. A Standard Profiler has the option only for a built-in Sensor and cannot receive flow data.
D. An Express Profiler can handle more flows per minute then a Standard Profiler.
E. An Express Profiler has a built in Sensor and Gateway.
Answer: E
Explanation:
QUESTION NO: 62
In the Cascade Profiler GUI, how frequently is the dashboard refreshed by default?
A. Every 15 seconds
B. Every 15 minutes
C. Every 5 minutes D.
Every 1 minute
E. Every 1 hour
300-370 vce Answer: D
Explanation:

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Now is a shiny new laptop market, which is a good time to buy one. Apple’s recently launched new portable MacBook lineup gives them some extra cheer.Microsoft has launched a surface laptop in the UK. Microsoft’s latest Windows-driven machine is designed to deliver quality specifications and designs at a more affordable price. And, over the last few weeks, our bags have been packed with this device, and StarTech can say that if you like everything about Microsoft, it’s definitely worth considering.

Windows laptops are rarely described as sexy, but the first thing you’ll notice is how good surface looks. The stylish aluminum fuselage, with embossed windows logos, gives surface an advanced feeling when you pull it out of the bag. Microsoft also managed to keep the new surface relatively light.

By opening this gadget, you will be subject to another stylish design feature, which is covered with Alcantara fabric. This luxurious material is used in automobiles, airplanes and furniture, and provides a powerful cover. It may seem strange to cover a laptop with cloth, but in fact it feels luxurious. Microsoft says it can also be cleaned up-although we have to reconfirm it before using it.

Surface has a fast Intel Core processor and up to 512GB of hard disk space. The 13-inch Pixelsense touchscreen is a beautiful thing that shows the bright, colorful, sharp content. With the beautiful display, there are some delicious speakers hidden under the keyboard. Battery life also makes competitors cry because it lasts more than 14 hours without needing to be near the plug. There’s also a smart security feature that unlocks your laptop through your face-so you don’t need to remember your password. There is no doubt that Microsoft has used surface to create something worth your money, but before you get your wallet, there are some minor problems.

First of all, this laptop lacks some important ports, only a standard USB and Minidisplay port. Then the touchpad can only be described as feeling cheap, annoying and unpleasant to use. Finally, surface also comes with the Windows ten s operating system. The new operating system is designed to make it easier to use Microsoft’s popular operating system, and only applications and programs approved by Windows can be installed through the official store. There are many positive aspects to using Windows Ten, including keeping your laptop virus-free and not clogging up with cunning software. But it also means you can’t download popular programs like Google Chrome, Photoshop or many PC owners love games. Users of surface laptops can upgrade to the full and unlocked versions of Windows 10 free of charge.

Microsoft plans to end the free Windows 10 Assistive technology upgrade on December 31, eventually upgrading to Windows 10 free of charge. Microsoft ended the free upgrade service for all users on July 29, 2016, a year when Windows 10 was officially released. However, the company does allow assistive technicians to upgrade free of charge. Now, Microsoft is planning to turn off the free upgrade service for users who use assistive technology. This means that everyone now has the last chance to upgrade to Windows 10. After December 31, no one can use this vulnerability to upgrade to Windows 10.

Prediction:
With its excellent performance, stunning screen and design, surface is worth considering as a portable PC. Microsoft has created a notebook computer that you like to use.

Edge:
The surface of the notebook computer is entirely in line with expectations. I think this is the new de facto Windows laptop that most people want a Windows laptop to get-as long as they can afford to spend 1300 of dollars in upgrade mode. It creates a perfect balance of power, portability, practicality and design for most people; Although the price is slightly higher than the direct competitor. It’s thin, but not so thin, powerful, but not crazy. Microsoft just chose to do the obvious, right thing with this laptop over and over again, even if it’s a bit boring. Then he put a rug on it and tuned it up. I hope Microsoft has done a good job on this hardware and it does. But my other expectation for surface laptops is that I can’t really get the apps I need from the Windows App Store, and I’m right. If you buy this laptop, you will eventually upgrade to Windows Pro.

There is a thinner Windows notebook computer. There is a cheaper Windows notebook computer. There is a more powerful Windows notebook computer. But all these laptops require you to make more uncomfortable compromises than surface laptops.

Pocket Lint:
The Microsoft Surface Book is a very interesting notebook computer. It looks gorgeous, built very well, and comes with a blocked version of Windows, and all the costs are considerable. In this regard, the education sector will be mistaken in this matter. However, upgraded to Windows Pro (free in 2017), Surface laptop is a powerful, mute operator with a very good screen and good battery time. We will choose the entry-level surface Pro, because if you specialize in laptops, then you’ll get more money.

But money is a problem here, because surface laptops are far from easy. Depending on what you see, it is not necessarily a trading circuit breaker. As a competitor to the Chromebook elite, it is as expensive as Google Chromebook Pixel did a few years ago. As a regular laptop or MacBook competitor, Surface laptop is a great machine for many people. If we’re going to buy a Windows machine tomorrow, it’s surface Laptop. This is just a ready-made version of the software we think, but it’s easy to correct.

TECH RADAR
Microsoft is gaining a reputation for demonstrating its Windows software with solid, attractive, and generally satisfying high-end products, while Surface’s laptop continues. Thin and lightweight design makes it easy to carry, and meticulous component considerations as well as high-quality building materials make it fun to use. This is clearly a tool that Microsoft’s designers and engineers spend a lot of time on, and most of it has been rewarded well. This is one of the most good-looking windows devices on the market, and, thanks to some pretty specs, a carefully controlled Windows 10 operating system, it is also one of the most fluent experiences in Windows. If you use Microsoft’s core tools and you can find everything you need in the Windows store, you’ll be in love with surface laptops. The ability to upgrade to Windows Pro is welcome for those who are concerned that Windows is too strict, and for many people this will make the device more useful and flexible.

But this is not perfect, and there are some design choices that hinder its true greatness. The lack of usb-c is disappointing for this forward-looking device, and the lack of a port means you may have to resort to a USB adapter hub to plug in a variety of devices. You also pay a premium for this product-so there is a more powerful (but less visually appealing) laptop for the same price-or cheaper. At the same time, laptop glue and soldered cosmetics will let consumers even just wonder if anything is broken and their expensive gadgets can easily be fixed securely by people.

For now, if something breaks down, you may have to replace your surface laptop completely, even with a simpler, cheaper fix than other laptops. If you have completely purchased the ecosystem of Microsoft and want a lightweight laptop, and this laptop can perform at the least thrilling performance, then we can recommend surface laptops wholeheartedly. However, if you want more control over what is running on your machine, there are other ways to better meet your needs.

Releated Microsoft News Article Link:https://www.dailystar.co.uk/tech/news/663953/Microsoft-Surface-Laptop-REVIEW-best-Windows-Laptop-2017

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QUESTION 13
Which of the following properties of DHCP would a technician use to ensure an IP address is not leased out from the active scope?
A. Reservations
B. Lease times
C. Removing IPs from the active leases
D. Configuring the DNS options
N10-005 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Reservations are permanent lease assignments that are used to ensure that a specified client on a subnet can always use the same IP address. You can use DHCP reservations for hosts that require a consistent IP address, but do not need to be statically configured.
QUESTION 14
Spanning-Tree Protocol is used with which of the following network devices?
A. Router
B. NIC
C. Switch
D. DHCP server
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The specification for STP is IEEE 802.1D. The main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your network. Loops are deadly to a network.
QUESTION 15
A technician wants to separate networks on a switch. Which of the following should be configured to allow this?
A. VLAN
B. Trunking
C. Spanning tree
D. Traffic filtering
N10-005 dump Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A VLAN is a group of end stations in a switched network that is logically segmented by function, project team, or application, without regard to the physical locations of the users. VLANs have the same attributes as physical LANs, but you can group end stations even if they are not physically located on the same LAN segment.
QUESTION 16
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.
QUESTION 17
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
N10-005 pdf Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.
QUESTION 18
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.
QUESTION 19
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows: Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
N10-005 vce Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143
QUESTION 21
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
N10-005 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address.
QUESTION 22
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP
only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying
QUESTION 23
Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
N10-005 dump Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

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QUESTION 1
During performance testing, you discover that database INSERT operations against the Inventory table are slow. You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to complete the INSERT operations.What should you recommend?
A. Partition the nonclustered index.
B. Partition the Inventory table.snapshot replication
C. Create a column store index.Master Data Services
D. Drop the clustered index.change data capture
70-465 exam Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: Database2 will contain a table named Inventory. Inventory will contain over 100 GB of data. The Inventory table will have two indexes: a clustered index on the primary key and a nonclustered index. The column that is used as the primary key will use the identity property.
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to allow application users to perform tables. The solution must meet the business requirements. What should you recommend?
A. Create a Policy-Based Management Policy.
B. Create a user-defined database role and add users to the role.
C. Create stored procedures that use EXECUTE AS clauses.
D. Create functions that use EXECUTE AS clauses.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* EXECUTE AS Clause (Transact-SQL)
In SQL Server you can define the execution context of the following user-defined modules: functions (except inline table-valued functions), procedures, queues, and triggers.
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a feature to support your backup solution.What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
B. Column-level encryption
C. An NTFS file permission
D. A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
70-465 dumps Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario: · You must encrypt the backup files to meet regulatory compliance requirements. The encryption strategy must minimize changes to the databases and to the applications.
* Transparent data encryption (TDE) performs real-time I/O encryption and decryption of the data and log files. The encryption uses a database encryption key (DEK), which is stored in the database boot record for availability during recovery.
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution for Application1 that meets the security requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Signed stored procedures
B. Certificate Authentication
C. Encrypted columns
D. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
* Scenario:
/ Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external application named Application1 / Application developers must be denied direct access to the database tables. Applications must be denied direct access to the tables.
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a disk monitoring solution that meets the business requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. An audit
B. A dynamic management view
C. A maintenance plan
D. A SQL Server Agent alert
70-465 pdf Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 6
You need to recommend a solution to improve the performance of usp.UpdateInventory. The solution must minimize the amount of development effort. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. A table variable
B. A common table expression
C. A subquery
D. A cursor
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
*Scenario: Database2 will contain a stored procedure named usp_UpdateInventory. Usp_UpdateInventory will manipulate a table that contains a self-join that has an unlimited number of hierarchies.
* A table variable can be very useful to store temporary data and return the data in the table format.
* Example: The following example uses a self-join to find the products that are supplied by more than one vendor.
Because this query involves a join of the ProductVendor table with itself, the ProductVendor table appears in two roles. To distinguish these roles, you must give the ProductVendor table two different aliases (pv1 and pv2) in the FROM clause. These aliases are used to qualify the column names in the rest of the query. This is an example of the self-join Transact-SQL statement: USE AdventureWorks2008R2;
GO
SELECT DISTINCT pv1.ProductID, pv1.VendorID
FROM Purchasing.ProductVendor pv1
INNER JOIN Purchasing.ProductVendor pv2
ON pv1.ProductID = pv2.ProductID
AND pv1.VendorID <> pv2.VendorID
ORDER BY pv1.ProductID
Incorrect:
Not B: Using a CTE offers the advantages of improved readability and ease in maintenance of complex queries. The query can be divided into separate, simple, logical building blocks. These simple blocks can then be used to build more complex, interim CTEs until the final result set is generated.
QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution for the deployment of SQL Server 2014. The solution must meet the business requirements. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create a new instance of SQL Server 2014 on the server that hosts the SQL Server 2008 instance.
B. Upgrade the existing SQL Server 2008 instance to SQL Server 2014.
C. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement Failover Clustering.
D. Deploy two servers that have SQL Server 2014 installed and implement database mirroring.
70-465 vce Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario: The databases must be available if the SQL Server service fails.
QUESTION 8
You need to recommend a solution to synchronize Database2 to App1_Db1. What should you recommend?
A. Change data capture
B. Snapshot replication
C. Master Data Services
D. Transactional replication
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Scenario:
* Data from Database2 will be accessed periodically by an external application named Application1. The data from Database2 will be sent to a database named App1_Db1 as soon as changes occur to the data in Database2.
* All data in Database2 is recreated each day and does not change until the next data creation process.

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QUESTION 1
When configuring the Cisco TelePresence System 500 with a static IP address, where should the IP address be configured?
A. in Cisco Unified Communications Manager after adding the Cisco TelePresence System 500 manually
B. in the Cisco TelePresence System Administration tool
C. in the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite after the Cisco TelePresence System 500 was added under systems
D. Static IP address configuration is not possible. Only a DHCP-provided IP address is supported.
E. using the on-screen display
210-065 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
A customer requests a configuration that enables users to easily add a third party to an existing call. The environment contains only three Cisco TelePresence C40 codecs and one Cisco VCS. To achieve the customer\’s requirements, which feature should be added?
A. Cisco MultiWay
B. Cisco TelePresence Conductor
C. Cisco TMS
D. Cisco Multisite
E. Cisco VCS Expressway
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.

Which CLI command should be run to resolve these alarms on a Cisco VCS?
A. xcommand DefaultValuesSet
B. xconfiguration DefaultLinksAdd
C. xcommand DefaultLinksAdd
D. xconfiguration DefaultValuesSet
210-065 dump Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
Which Cisco Video Surveillance product contains the Cisco Video Surveillance Encoding Server?
A. Video Communications Server
B. Cisco Video Surveillance Operations Manager
C. Cisco Video Surveillance Media Server
D. Cisco Video Surveillance Transcoding and Encoding Server
E. Cisco Video Surveillance Virtual Matrix
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
When you configure a zone for firewall traversal, which type of zone is the Cisco VCS-C configured for?
A. client
B. server
C. proxy
D. gateway
E. neighbor
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
An engineer is deploying a Cisco TelePresence Touch 8 controller for a Cisco TelePresence SX20. Which two steps are required as part of this process? (Choose two.)
A. Connect the cable from the Touch 8 controller to the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
B. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the power adapter and connect the adapter to the network.
C. Connect the Touch 8 controller to the secondary network adapter on the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
D. Reboot the Cisco TelePresence SX20.
E. Hold the mute button down for 20 seconds while you power on the Touch 8 controller.
Correct Answer: CE
QUESTION 7
Which three of these are functions of the Cisco TelePresence Management Suite? (Choose three.)
A. automatic software update and release keys
B. intelligent call routing engine
C. provisioning a Cisco TelePresence System endpoint
D. tracing SIP and H.323 calls
E. managing phonebooks for endpoints that are registered to the Cisco Unified Cisco Unified Communications Manager
F. rebooting endpoints that are registered to the Cisco TelePresence Video Communications Server
210-065 vce Correct Answer: ABF
QUESTION 8
You are checking a DHCP server configuration for video endpoints. What is the role of option 150 in the configuration?
A. It is the NTP server IPv4 address.
B. It is not necessary to specify the role of option 150.
C. It is the TFTP server IPv4 address.
D. It is the TFTP server IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
A technician is trying to pair a Touch 8 with a Cisco TelePresence SX20 endpoint, but the codec is not automatically
listed in the touch panel. What are two possible reasons for this behavior? (Choose two.)
A. The codec firmware version is below version TC 6.1.
B. The codec and the Touch 8 are on separate subnets.
C. Pairing visibility mode is not active on the codec.
D. The codec is not compatible with a Touch 8 device.
E. The Touch 8 is connected via the second Ethernet port on the codec.
210-065 exam Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
A customer owns three Codian 5300 MCUs with several video endpoints. Users complain that they are getting
multipoint control unit port capacity errors when scheduling video conferences in Cisco TMS. What can be done to
correct these errors automatically?
A. Enable the Automatic MCU Cascading option in the Cisco TMS Conference Settings.
B. Install a Cascading option key on the Cisco TMS server.
C. Install a Cisco TelePresence Conductor server.
D. Install cascaded multipoint control units.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit.

When the administrator clicks the ticket number of any of the open tickets, which two actions are presented to the
administrator? (Choose two.)
A. ignore ticket
B. acknowledge ticket
C. delete ticket
D. close ticket
E. escalate ticket
210-065 dump Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 12
Which bridge solution requires Cisco TelePresence Conductor?
A. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in remotely managed mode
B. Cisco TelePresence Server operating in locally managed mode
C. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in remotely managed mode
D. Cisco TelePresence MCU operating in locally managed mode
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
On the Cisco VCS-E, what is the default port number for the H.323 connection on the first traversal zone between a Cisco VCS-C and Cisco VCS-E?
A. 1719
B. 1720
C. 5060
D. 6001
E. 7001
210-065 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 14
Which option is the embedded component that enables endpoints and collaboration applications to support medianet functionality?
A. Media Services Interface
B. Open API
C. XMPP
D. SNMP
E. Medianet Agent
F. SDN
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 15
Which Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Control Unit Layout view mode gives prominence to one conference participant over the other conference participants while still allowing conference participants to view multiple participants at the same time?
A. enhanced continuous presence
B. active speaker
C. continuous presence
D. room switching
E. speaker switching
210-065 vce Correct Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-412
Exam Name: Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Q&As: 424

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YOU’LL LEARN TO IMPLEMENT

• Advanced network services.
• Advanced file services.
• Dynamic Access Control.
• Network load balancing (NLB).
• Failover clustering.
• Failover clustering with Hyper-V.
• Disaster recovery.
• Distributed Active Directory® Domain Services (AD DS) deployments.
• AD DS sites and replication.
• Active Directory Certification Services (AD CS).
• Active Directory Rights Management Services (AD RMS).
• Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).

Share Some Microsoft Specialist 70-412 Dump Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 93
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup. You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery. Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy
70-412 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 94
Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 95
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You have a subscription to Windows Azure. You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1. What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent.
70-412 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 96
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office. The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site. Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site. Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses. The solution must meet the following requirements: The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline. Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is offline. Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 97
Your network contains one Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains two child domains and six domain controllers. The domain controllers are configured as shown in the following table.

You need to replicate users who haven’t authenticated against any domain controllers for the last 7 days. What should you use?
A. Set-ADSite
B. Set-ADReplicationSite
C. Set-ADDomain
D. Set-ADReplicationSiteLink
E. Set-ADGroup
F. Set-ADForest
G. Netdom
70-412 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 98
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All client computers run Windows 8 Enterprise. You have a remote site that only contains client computers. All of the client computer accounts are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Remote1. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to the Remote1 OU. You need to configure BranchCache for the remote site. Which two settings should you configure in GPO1? To answer, select the two appropriate settings in the answer area.
Hot Area:

QUESTION: 99
Your report includes a dynamic parameter named “Where” that uses a cascading list of values from Country to Region to City. You create discrete value parameters for all three fields. Using Los Angeles as an example, you want to display the report title as “Customers in Los Angeles, CA, USA”. Which text object will display the report as required?
A. Customers in {?Where ?City}, {?Where ?Region}, {?Where ?Country}
B. Customers in {?Where ?City} + – + {?Where ?Region} + , + {?Where ?Country}
C. Customers in {?Where ?City}, {?Where ?Country}, {?Where ?Region}
D. Customers in {?Where ?Country}, {?Where ?Region}, {?Where ?City}
70-412 vce Answer: A
QUESTION: 100
Which lines of code use the correct syntax to assign a variable a value in Basic syntax?
A. Numbervar x; x = 5;,
B. Dim x as Number x := 5
C. Numbervar x; x := 5;
D. Dim x as Number x = 5
Answer: D
QUESTION: 101
In Crystal Reports you select multiple report objects at the same time. Which three menu options become available when you right-click one of the selected objects?(Choose three.)
A. Format Objects
B. Align
C. Size
D. Delete
E. Move
Answer: A, B, C
QUESTION: 102
You create a new Crystal report with a summary value. You must select only the Bottom N groups, removing groups that do not fit the criteria. Some groups may have equal summarized values. How can you accomplish the required result using the Group Sort Expert?
A. Select the Bottom Percentage sort option, deselect the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
B. Select the Bottom N sort option, deselect the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
C. Select the Bottom Percentage sort option, select the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
D. Select the Bottom N sort option, select the Include Others option and select the Include ties option.
70-412 exam Answer: B
QUESTION: 103
Which two types of objects can you apply dynamic field sorting to? (Choose two.)
A. Text Field
B. Field Heading
C. Formula Field
D. Database Field
E. Parameter Field
Answer: A, B
QUESTION: 104
You must summarize the sales amounts for all customers with less than $1000 per sale. How would you evaluate this in the Running Total Expert?
A. For each record
B. On change of field
C. Use a formula
D. On change of group
70-412 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION: 105
You want to use a report’s data in another application. The application requires the data in a custom XML format. Which two steps must you perform? (Choose two.)
A. Import the XSLT.
B. Export the XSLT.
C. Import the report using XML.
D. Export the report to XML format.
Answer: A, D

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Exam Code: 642-385
Exam Name: Cisco Express Foundation for Field Engineers
Q&As: 81

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QUESTION 1
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?
A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement
642-385 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2
Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical
project progresses?
A. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes increases.
B. Risk and uncertainty increase; the cost of changes decreases,
C. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes increases.
D. Risk and uncertainty decrease; the cost of changes decreases.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
A. Document analysis
B. Observations
C. Product analysis
D. Expert judgment
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4
Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
A. Independent estimates
B. Market research
C. Analytical techniques
D. Bidder conferences
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis
are examples of which tool or technique?
A. Expert judgment
B. Forecasting methods
C. Earned value management
D. Analytical techniques
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning
642-385 vce Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
A. Control Scope
B. Define Scope
C. Plan Scope Management
D. Collect Requirements
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 9
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project
objectives?
A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
642-385 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 10
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing,
managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
A. Plan Schedule Management.
B. Develop Project Charter.
C. Develop Schedule.
D. Plan Scope Management.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur
during the project?
A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
A. The project charter.
B. The stakeholder analysis.
C. A communication management plan.
D. A stakeholder register.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual
performance is:
A. Product analysis.
B. Variance analysis.
C. Document analysis,
D. Decomposition.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 15
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting
relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
A. Develop Project Team.
B. Manage Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team.
D. Plan Human Resource Management.
642-385 vce Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 16
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often
involves physical limitations?
A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is
completed and that the project has met its objectives?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope
642-385 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
A. Work performance reports.
B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 19
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
A. Procurement statement of work
B. Purchase order
C. Source selection criteria
D. Bidder conference
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 20
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 21
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an
example of which type of communication?
A. Efficient
B. Effective
C. Push
D. Pull
642-385 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 22
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
A. Performance measurement baseline.
B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 23
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a
life cycle that is:
A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative
642-385 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 24
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline
642-385 exam Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 26
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting
642-385 dumps Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 27
Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any
decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
A. Interrelationship digraphs
B. Tree diagram
C. Affinity diagram
D. Network diagram
Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 210-260
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Q&As: 310

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Share Some Cisco Specialist 210-260 Dumps Exam Questions and Answers Below:

QUESTION 51
Click on the exhibit button below.
Given the configuration shown, how much of a link’s 100Mbps reservable bandwidth can an LSP access when configured for class-type 0 and priority 1?
A. 10Mbps
B. 20Mbps
C. 30Mpbs
D. 60Mbps
E. 70Mbps
210-260 exam Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 52
Which of the following statements is true of an established LDP session?
A. It uses a UDP connection with an arbitrary port number.
B. It uses a UDP connection with well known port number 646.
C. It uses a TCP connection with an arbitrary port number.
D. It uses a TCP connection with well known port number 646.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 53
Click on the exhibit button below.
Which fields in this output uniquely identify the RSVP session belonging to a single LSP? (Choose three)
A. Tunnel ID
B. Name
C. LSP ID
D. To
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: ABC
QUESTION 54
How many bits of the MPLS header are used for the label field?
A. 16
B. 20
C. 24
D. 25
E. 32
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 55
Which of the following best describes constraint-based routing?
A. A mechanism that implements opaque LSAs.
B. A mechanism that computes routes based on defined user requirements.
C. A mechanism that allows the IGP shortest path to be used.
D. A mechanism that allows RSVP or LDP signaling to use a route other than the IGP best route to establish a LSP.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 56
A targeted-LDP session may exist between directly connected or non-directly connected devices
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 57
On a point-to-point link, two directly connected routers set different interface hello timeout values. Router R1 uses 15 seconds, while router R2 uses 30 seconds. What happens to the LDP adjacency?
A. The adjacency forms with the lower timeout value
B. The “show router Idp session” command output displays the adjacency in state “init”
C. The adjacency forms with the higher timeout value
D. The adjacency times out after 30 seconds
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 58
Router R4 originates 500 RSVP signaled LSPs with default hello and refresh timer settings If the only downstream communication fails (link is operationally UP), how long will RSVP wait before it declares the RSVP sessions down?
A. 3000ms
B. 9000ms
C. 30000ms
D. 120000ms
210-260 vce Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 59
Click on the exhibit button below.
LSP “toR8-5” requests fast reroute protection on the primary loose path. What could be done to remove the Failure Code shown?
A. CSPF must be enabled at head-end on fast reroute protected loose path LSPs
B. Fast reroute must first be enabled on the downstream routers.
C. CSPF must be enabled on all downstream loose hop routers.
D. Global revertive path optimization must be enabled so the path will be re-optimized around a failed node.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 60
Click on the exhibit button below.
If the four LSPs shown use the shared-explicit reservation style, how much bandwidth does CSPF request across a single 1Gbps link?
A. 100Mbps
B. 200Mbps
C. 300Mpbs
D. 600Mbps
E. 700Mbps
Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 61
Which of the following statements regarding the MPLS SWAP label operation is true?
A. The inner label will be exchanged with the MPLS outer label.
B. The inner label will be exchanged for a new label.
C. The outer label will be exchanged for a new label.
D. All labels will be exchanged for one new label.
E. All labels will be exchanged for an equal number of new labels.
210-260 exam Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 62
If the destination IP address of a received unlabeled packet is successfully matched in the FIB, which of  the following statements are true? Choose two answers.
A. A PUSH label stack operation must be performed.
B. The outgoing interface and next-hop address will be determined from the FIB.
C. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet.
D. A POP label stack operation may be performed.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 63
Which of the following devices receives labeled packets from the MPLS domain, removes the MPLS header, and forwards unlabeled packets outside the MPLS domain?
A. P router
B. LSR
C. eLER
D. iLER
210-260 dumps Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 64
Which of the following statements are true? Choose two answers
A. Selected labels from the FIB are populated to the LIB.
B. Selected labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB.
C. Selected routes from the RIB are populated to the FIB.
D. Selected routes from the FIB are populated to the RIB.
E. All labels from the LIB are populated to the LFIB.
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 65
When a device receives a labeled packet, which of the following can occur?
A. The packet can only be forwarded as an unlabeled packet.
B. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet, depending on the received label value.
C. The packet can be forwarded as a labeled or unlabeled packet, depending on the destination IP address in the payload
D. The packet can only be forwarded as a labeled packet.
210-260 pdf Correct Answer: B

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Exam Code: 70-348
Exam Name: Managing Projects and Portfolios with Microsoft PPM (beta)
Q&As: 48

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QUESTION: 21
Which three If-Then-Else control structure formulas in Crystal syntax will generate an error? (Choose three.)
A. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then”Under $100″ElseIs {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then “Between $100 and $200”
B. If {Orders.order Amount} < 1000 Then “Low” Else “High”
C. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 100 Then formula = “Under $100” ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 100 to 200 Then formula = “Between $100 and $200” EndIf
D. If {Orders.Order Amount} < 200 ThenUnder $200 ElseIf {Orders.Order Amount} in 200 to 300 Then Between $200 and $300
70-348 exam Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 22
Which two methods can you use to insert field objects into a Crystal report? (Choose two.)
A. Right-click the area where you want the field object to appear, then select Insert Field Object from the Context menu.
B. Click the field name, drag it to the desired position and release the mouse button to insert.
C. Open the Section Expert and click the Insert button.
D. Click the field name and click the Insert to Report icon at the top of the Field Explorer. Drag the field to the desired position and left-click to insert.
Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 23
You are designing a Crystal report that summarizes customer orders by country, then by state, then by city and by customer ID. You want the report to print each country on a new page. Thefirst page should display a bar chart showing Total Sales by Country group in the
Report Header and as much of the first country as can be displayed. The last page should show the summary for the last country and the grand total for the entire report. Which step can you perform in the Section Expert to achieve the design goal?
A. Set New Page After on for Group Footer #1
B. Conditionally format the New Page After property for Group Footer #1 using the formula “not onlastrecord”
C. Format the New Page After property for Group Header #1 using the formula “not onlastrecord”
D. Set New Page After on for the Report Header section
70-348 dumps Answer: B
QUESTION: 24
You want to create a formula using the Formula Workshop. You begin by right-clicking Formula Fields in the Field Explorer and then click the New button. What happens after you click the New button?
A. You must select the type of formula and click OK.
B. The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor inactive.
C. You must enter a formula name and click OK.
D. The Formula Workshop opens with the Formula Editor active.
Answer: C
QUESTION: 25
Which three options are provided for web pagination? (Choose three.)
A. Navigation controls
B. Page breaking controls
C. Conditional Page Margin controls
D. Portrait versus Landscape controls
70-348 pdf Answer: B, C, D
QUESTION: 26
What are three Crystal Reports 2008 viewer features? (Choose three.)
A. Docked/Stationary Toolbar
B. Export to Microsoft PowerPoint
C. Java DHTML Viewer Exporting
D. Independent Group Tree Scrolling
Answer: A, C, D
QUESTION: 27
How must you register multiple XML export formats in Crystal Reports 2008?
A. Configure XML export formats using the Define XML dialog.
B. Configure XML export formats using the Manage XML dialog.
C. Add XML export formats using the Manage XML Exporting Formats dialog.
D. Add XML export formats using the Define XML Exporting Formats dialog.
70-348 vce Answer: C
QUESTION: 28
You have created a report with a parameter but the parameter value is not always required.
Which method should you use?
A. Set Editable to True
B. Set Null Values to True
C. Set Custom Values to True
D. Set Optional Prompt to True
Answer: D
QUESTION: 29
Which two reasons explain why the Group Sort Expert is disabled when you attempt to create a Top N report? (Choose two.)
A. You are in Design view.
B. The data was not refreshed.
C. You are in a Drill Down view.
D. The report is missing a summary value.
70-348 exam Answer: C, D
QUESTION: 30
You make changes to the record selection criteria in a Crystal report. In which two circumstances should you choose the Refresh Data option rather than the Use Saved Data option? (Choose two.)
A. When up-to-the-minute, current information must be displayed on the report.
B. When adding one or more selection criteria.
C. When it is important to avoid time delays caused by network traffic during database server connects.
D. When removing one or more existing selection criteria.
Answer: A, D
QUESTION: 31
Which Crystal Reports feature can you use to limit the number of records included in a report?
A. SQL Expression
B. Formula Workshop
C. Preview Sample
D. Record Selection Formula
70-348 dumps Answer: D
QUESTION: 32
The database structure is changed to include a Products table. Which tool would you use to add the Products table to the Customer Sales report?
A. Field Explorer
B. Select Expert
C. Report Explorer
D. Database Expert
Answer: D
QUESTION: 33
You create a new Crystal report and group the report by the customer name and then by country. The tables in your database have a one-to-many linking relationship. Because of the linking relationship, field values from the primary table are repeated for each new field value causingdouble counting in the lookup table. Which two methods can you use to create accurate summaries? (Choose two.)
A. Use Dynamic Summarized Fields Expert.
B. Use Running Total Expert.
C. Create conditional grouping formulas.
D. Create manual running totals.
70-348 pdf Answer: B, D
QUESTION: 34
What can Crystal Reports developers use to add application-specific toolbars to the Report
Designer?
A. Add-Ins
B. WorkBench
C. Report Options
D. Insert Toolbars
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 70-532
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft Azure Solutions
Q&As: 188

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9.You need to configure storage for the solution. What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate XML segments to the correct locations. Each XML segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar
between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

10.You need to configure scaling for the plagiarism detection service.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate values in the dialog box in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-532 exam Correct Answer:

11.Users report that after periods of inactivity the website is slow to render pages and to process sign-in attempts. You need to ensure that the website is always responsive. What should you do?
A. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout-“86400” />
B. Add the following markup at line WC08:
<add key=”timeout” value=”null” />
C. Add the following markup at line WC14:
<sessionState timeout=”fl” />
D. In the Azure management portal, enable Always On support for the website.
E. In the Azure management portal, disable Always On support for the website.
Correct Answer: A
12.You need to implement the worker role to support the real-time continuous data-collection service. How should you complete the relevant code? To answer, select the appropriate option or options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

70-532 dumps Correct Answer:

13. Which statement(s) is/are correct regarding the administrative Copy Data feature available in the
Planning Web? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Data can be copied between versions only, for select scenarios
B. Data can be copied between scenarios only, for selected versions
C. Data can be copied between any dimensional intersection, assuming all dimensions and members are
present in the selected plan types
D. Cell Text is copied
E. Account Annotations are copied
F. Supporting detail is copied
G. Planning Unit Annotations are copied
H. You are prevented from copying to Planning Units that have been approved
Answer: CDEF
14. FNV Company allocates actual G&A expenses to specific lines of business based on planned
headcount in their annual strategic plan. Indicate the most appropriate calculation order to arrive at a
consolidated income statement. (SELECT THE BEST STATEMENT)
A. Aggregate/Consolidate database
B. Run allocation process
C. Calculate Salary & Benefits
D. Calculate Total Assets
E. Calculate Total Expenses
A. A,C,E,D,B
B. C,E,D,A,B
C. E,C,A,B
D. C,E,B,A
E. C,D,E,B,A
70-532 pdf Answer: D
15. When currency exchange rates are pushed to Essbase, they are initially stored at the following
intersections. (SELECT ONE)
A. Specified Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Generation 1 Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
B. Specified Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Level 0 Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
C. Generation 1 Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
D. D. Level 1 Members: Period, Year, Scenario, and HSP_Rates
Specified Members: Entity, Version, Currency, and Other Custom Dimension
Answer: A
16. Which of the following features are advantages of business rules over calculation scripts? (SELECT
ALL THAT APPLY)
A. Run-time prompts
B. Run on save
C. Run on save with run-time prompts
D. Organize content into projects
E. Larger calculation function library
70-532 vce Answer: ACD
17. Your client has also requested the inclusion of several scenario dimension members to perform
favorable/unfavorable variance calculations. Which item(s) must be known prior to successfully writing
these calculations? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY) NOTE: Assume that every dimension has at least one
dynamically calculated member, and that a default calc has just been run on the database.
A. The dense/sparse configuration of the dimensions in the outline.
B. The order of the dimensions in the outline.
C. The dynamic two-pass calc status of members in the outline.
D. The stored dimension member formulas of members in the outline.
E. Which dimension is tagged as entities.
F. Whether or not the application is enabled for multiple currencies.
Answer: ABC
18. Your client has requested the inclusion of several reporting metrics and ratios, such as Gross
Margin %, Net Income %, and ROI. Assuming a Financial plan type only using the standard planning
dimensions, with Account and Period dense, and everything else sparse, the best-practice way to
implement these calculations is via .
A. calc scripts
B. business rules
C. stored member formulas
D. dynamic calc formulas
E. dynamic calc two-pass member formulas
70-532 exam Answer: E
19. SCENARIO: A Planning client wants to analyze budget vs. actual variances in a foreign currency
application. They want to isolate how much of the variance is attributable to the exchange rate variance
and how much of it is a budget variance – the budget vs. actual variance amount if there was no exchange
rate variance. The client already has Budget and Actual Scenarios and Budget and Actual Exchange Rate
Tables assigned to the related Scenarios.
What is the most efficient solution to report the total variance and its components?
NOTE: Additional scenarios, data, and/or exchange rate tables have been included in the potential
solutions.
A. TABLE 1:
B. TABLE 2:
C. TABLE 3:
D. TABLE 4:
E. TABLE 5:
70-532 dumps Answer: A
20. Company XYZ has stated that query and report response times are very important. All calculations will be run at a time when users are not accessing the application. Assume that Hire Status is an attribute dimension and the most queried dimension is Entity followed by Employee. To meet the required query and report delivery response times, which is the most appropriate outline order?
A. Entity, Employee, Year, Scenario, Version, Period, Account, Hire Status
B. Employee, Entity, Hire Status, Year, Scenario, Version, Period, Account
C. Entity, Employee, Account, Period, Year, Version, Scenario, Hire Status
D. Account, Period, Year, Scenario, Version, Entity, Employee, Hire Status
E. Account, Period, Entity, Employee, Year, Scenario, Version, Hire Status
F. Account, Period, Employee, Entity, Year, Scenario, Version, Hire Status
Answer: E

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