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AWS Certified Specialty ANS-C00 Practice Test (part)
QUESTION 1 For _______ distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches. A. AMI B. Web C. RTMP D. Web and RTMP Correct Answer: C For RTMP distributions, when Amazon CloudFront requests an object from the origin server, it removes any cookies before forwarding the request to your origin. If your origin returns any cookies along with the object, CloudFront removes them before returning the object to the viewer. For RTMP distributions, CloudFront does not cache cookies in edge caches. Reference: click here
QUESTION 2 Your company is expanding its cloud infrastructure and moving many of its flat files and static assets to S3. You currently use a VPN to access your compute infrastructure, but you require more reliability for your static files as you are offloading all of your important data to AWS. What is your best course of action while keeping costs low? A. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Private VIF to access both compute and S3 resources. B. Create an S3 endpoint and create a route to the endpoint prefix-list for your VPN to allow access to your S3 resources. C. Create two Direct Connect connections. Each connected to a Private VIF to ensure maximum resiliency. D. Create a Direct Connect connection using a Public VIF and route your VPN over the DX connection to your VPN endpoint. Correct Answer: D An S3 endpoint cannot be used with a VPN. A Private VIF cannot access S3 resources. A Public VIF with a VPN will ensure security for your compute resources and access to your S3 resources. Two DX connections are very expensive and a Private VIF still won\\’t allow access to your S3 resources.
QUESTION 3 Which service would you use to see who changed your infrastructure? A. Config B. CloudTrail C. Flow Logs Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You have just deployed a website that utilizes CloudFront, ELB, and S3 to serve content. When users access your site, they are seeing broken image links. What is most likely the problem? A. There is no record in Route 53 pointing cdn.yourdomain.com to the CloudFront ALIAS. B. You need to create Origin Access Identity for CloudFront and add it to your bucket policy. C. The images in S3 are saved as .png instead of .jpg. D. There is no rule in your bucket policy allowing public access. Correct Answer: B You must have an OAI if the bucket policy does not allow public access, which is bad practice.
QUESTION 5 Your company has decided to use AWS WorkSpaces for its hosted desktop solution. Your company has an existing AD of about 57,000 users, and you want to minimize authentication traffic from AWS to your datacenter. Your company has a lot of personnel changes, and it is crucial that these changes are reflected reliably. What two steps should you take? (Choose two.) A. Deploy Hosted AD in AWS. B. Deploy an AD Connector in AWS. C. Create a DX connection between the datacenter and AWS. D. Create a VPN between the datacenter AWS. Correct Answer: AC A VPN is not reliable enough, and an AD connector will cause too much authentication traffic.
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QUESTION 7 Your company needs to directly update an S3 bucket that serves as a CloudFront origin with the most reliability possible. Your company also has a set of private EC2 servers that it needs to access with the same reliability. Which combination will provide the best solution? A. A Virtual Gateway and a Public VIF B. A Private VIF is all you need to access all AWS resources. C. A Hosted VIF and a Private VIF D. A Public VIF and a Private VIF Correct Answer: D The Public VIF will allow access to the S3 bucket, and the Private VIF will allow access to the EC2 instances.
QUESTION 8 What is the DNS server address for a VPC (10.111.0.0/16) with a subnet of 10.111.4.0/24? A. 10.111.0.2 B. 10.111.4.2 C. 10.111.1.2 D. 10.111.4.1 Correct Answer: A The DNS server is the base VPC CIDR + 2.
AWS Certified Specialty AXS-C01 Practice Test (part)
QUESTION 1 The information below details a portion of an interaction model in JSON: What is wrong with this interaction model?
A. The intent naming convention is not valid in the situation. B. The two intents do not have unique slots. C. The two intents do not have unique utterances. D. The JSON is not properly constructed and would cause an error. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 What are the prerequisites for implementing account linking for Amazon Alexa smart home skills? A. OAuth 2.0 with either implicit grant flow or authorization code grant flow B. OAuth 2.0 with authorization code grant flow C. OpenID Connect wit JSON.Web Token (JWT) D. OAuth 1.0/2.0 with implicit grant flow Correct Answer: B Reference: click here
QUESTION 3 An Alexa Skill Builder is developing a skill that enables users to purchase train tickets. The Builder wants to give users the ability to modify the departure time if they are misunderstood, before the skill proceeds to purchase the tickets. Which option should be used to implement this functionality within the session? A. Implement AMAZON.FallbackIntent so the user can stop the execution when they have been misunderstood. B. Implement AMAZON.StopIntent so the user can stop the execution and implement reprompt with a new invocation of the skill. C. Implement AMAZON.CancelIntent so the user can cancel the order, then set shouldEndSession to false, and prompt the user for the next action. D. Implement the welcome message, providing clear instructions to the user describing how to format an order. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 An Alexa Skill Builder built a skill with the following interaction model: Which utterance would invoke HelloIntent?
A. “Alexa, use my first skill to say hello.” B. “Alexa, ask my first skill to say hello to John.” C. “Alexa, open my first skill.” D. “Alexa, say hello to my first skill.” Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An Alexa Skill Builder published a skill and now wants to update it. Which of the following changes will make it necessary to have the skill re-certified? (Choose two.) A. Adding a new intent in the interaction model B. Changing the text of a skill response C. Adding a sentence to the skill description D. Changing the URL of the image on a skill card E. Updating the backend to point to a new database Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 6 An Alexa Skill Builder is creating a skill that requires the user to authenticate by speaking a PIN before an order status can be retrieved. According to best practices, how should the PIN value be collected? A. Use AMAZON.SearchQuery B. Use AMAZON.FOUR_DIGIT_NUMBER C. Use multiple slots of type AMAZON.NUMBER D. Use a custom slot with zero to nine as values. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7 An Alexa Builder is working on a skill for music streaming. When a user says, “Alexa, stop” the skill needs to know where the user was in the song, so that when returning to the skill in a new session, the song can pick up where it left off. Which section of the following JSON contains the data indicating where the song left off?
A. session.attributes B. Context.AudioPlayer C. session.user D. context.System.device.supportedInterfaces.AudioPlayer Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 An Alexa Skill Builder has published a skill to the Alexa Skills Store, but soon after realizes that Amazon Alexa is saying an incorrect word in one of the responses. What is the recommended method for the Builder to correct this issue? A. Correct the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, redeploy it. B. Access the In Development version of the skill, alter the intent that was causing the incorrect word, then resubmit the skill for certification. C. Edit the response in a new endpoint, and after updating the In Development version of the skill, resubmit it for certification. D. Correct the response in the existing endpoint of the Live version of the skill, then redeploy it. Correct Answer: A
AWS Certified Specialty DAS-C01 Practice Test (part)
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QUESTION 6 A marketing company is using Amazon EMR clusters for its workloads. The company manually installs third-party libraries on the clusters by logging in to the master nodes. A data analyst needs to create an automated solution to replace the manual process. Which options can fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) A. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them using custom bootstrap actions. B. Place the required installation scripts in Amazon S3 and execute them through Apache Spark in Amazon EMR. C. Install the required third-party libraries in the existing EMR master node. Create an AMI out of that master node and use that custom AMI to re-create the EMR cluster. D. Use an Amazon DynamoDB table to store the list of required applications. Trigger an AWS Lambda function with DynamoDB Streams to install the software. E. Launch an Amazon EC2 instance with Amazon Linux and install the required third-party libraries on the instance. Create an AMI and use that AMI to create the EMR cluster. Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 7 A company is building a data lake and needs to ingest data from a relational database that has time-series data. The company wants to use managed services to accomplish this. The process needs to be scheduled daily and bring incremental data only from the source into Amazon S3. What is the MOST cost-effective approach to meet these requirements? A. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Ingest incremental records only using job bookmarks. B. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers. Store the last updated key in an Amazon DynamoDB table and ingest the data using the updated key as a filter. C. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the entire dataset. Use appropriate Apache Spark libraries to compare the dataset, and find the delta. D. Use AWS Glue to connect to the data source using JDBC Drivers and ingest the full data. Use AWS DataSync to ensure the delta only is written into Amazon S3. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 A hospital uses wearable medical sensor devices to collect data from patients. The hospital is architecting a near-realtime solution that can ingest the data securely at scale. The solution should also be able to remove the patient\\’s protected health information (PHI) from the streaming data and store the data in durable storage. Which solution meets these requirements with the least operational overhead? A. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams, which invokes an AWS Lambda function using Kinesis Client Library (KCL) to remove all PHI. Write the data in Amazon S3. B. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Have Amazon S3 trigger an AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI in Amazon S3. C. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Streams to write the data to Amazon S3. Have the data stream launch an AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data and removes all PHI in Amazon S3. D. Ingest the data using Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose to write the data to Amazon S3. Implement a transformation AWS Lambda function that parses the sensor data to remove all PHI. Correct Answer: C Reference: click here
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QUESTION 1 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The table in the exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads. Click the Exhibit button to view the table.
The architect should scale the hardware used to host the virtual machines (VMs) for User Group 1 to ________ cores. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. 32 B. 24 C. 96 D. 64 E. 16 Correct Answer: E
QUESTION 2 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The table in the exhibit lists details about the requirements of the current user groups and their Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machine workloads. Click the Exhibit button to view the table.
The architect should scale the hardware used to host the virtual machines (VMs) for User Group 1 to __________ cores. (Choose the correct option to complete the sentence.) A. 32 B. 64 C. 96 D. 24 E. 16 Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 A Citrix Architect needs to enable the security of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) by evaluating the `EnableVdaSSL.ps1 -Enable\\’ script. Which supported SSL protocol version is least secure when using the default settings of the script? A. TLS 1.0 B. SSL 3.0 C. TLS 1.2 D. TLS 1.1 E. SSL 1.0 F. SSL 2.0 Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/xenapp-and-xendesktop/7-15-ltsr/secure/tls.html
QUESTION 4 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment for a company with 2 branch offices connected over a WAN link. Each location will maintain its own Citrix Site and be configured for disaster recovery (DR) to allow users to failover if 1 Site has an outage. Management wants to implement a strong profile solution to manage user profiles. Each user maintains a profile that consists of user documents, application settings, and other personalization settings that must be available to them at all times. Which step should the architect perform to ensure that profile requirements are met? A. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Windows Folder Redirection configured, and Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection. B. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-passive profile replication configured over the WAN connection. C. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection. D. Implement Citrix Profile Management for all users with Active write back enabled and Microsoft Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) active-active profile replication configured over the WAN connection. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. The architect has identified the requirements, based on the assessment and early stages of the design. Click the Exhibit button to view the requirements.
Additionally, the IT team identified 2 provisioning strategy requirements: Should be compatible with planned design decisions Should minimize the required time to perform image and application updates Which provisioning method should the architect use for the environment, based on the design decisions and requirements are shown in the exhibit? A. Machine Creation Services (MCS) with App Layering B. Manual Provisioning with App Layering C. Manual Provisioning D. Citrix Provisioning with App Layering E. Citrix Provisioning F. Machine Creation Services (MCS) Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a Citrix Virtual Desktops environment. The Graphic Editors Group uses a graphics-intensive and media-rich application. Graphic editors will be provided with a Windows Server 2016 Desktop with NVIDIA graphics hardware acceleration. HDX 3D Pro and Server VDI options were selected during the command-line installation of the Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA). Which limitation will affect the Graphic Editors Group? A. Each virtual desktop requires a dedicated NVIDIA graphics card. B. Support is available only for a single user session per VDA. C. The Browser Content Redirection feature is NOT available. D. Support is limited to the Thinwire graphics protocol. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 Scenario: An infrastructure team has stated that the new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops virtualization host will have the specifications shown in the exhibit. Click the Exhibit button to view the specifications.
QUESTION 8 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment. As part of graphics-mode design considerations the architect determined that one User Group requires hardware acceleration with CPU-enabled Virtual Delivery Agent (VDA) machines for 3D graphics-design-type applications. Which graphics mode needs to be configured for this specific group? A. Visual quality = Build to Lossless B. Visual quality = Always Lossless C. Optimize for 3D graphics workload = Disabled D. Optimize for 3D graphics workload = Enabled Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9 Scenario: A Citrix Architect is designing a new Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment for a company that maintains branch offices in New York, Chicago, and Miami. Management has described the following requirements for the environment: The Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops Site must be located in the company headquarters in Miami. All users will only need to access their default local print queue from within their HDX sessions. Users in Chicago need access to printers hosted on a Citrix Universal Print Server located in New York. Printing performance and bandwidth usage must be optimized where possible. The environment must be highly available. The auto-created client printer models must function with no additional configuration needed. Click the Exhibit button to review the printing requirements.
What does the architect need to do to meet the printing requirements for the users in Chicago? A. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with the `Auto-create all client printers\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with no fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to the users in Chicago. B. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with the `Auto-create all client printers\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to Chicago users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to all users. C. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with `Auto-create all client\\’s default printer only\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only if the requested driver is unavailable\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to all users. D. Enable the Auto-create client printers policy with `Auto-create all client\\’s default printer only\\’ setting enabled. Enable the Universal print driver usage policy to `Use universal printing only\\’. Apply the policy to all users. Then, install and configure the Citrix Universal Print Server components and configure the Universal Print Server policy to `Enabled with fallback to Windows native remote printing\\’. Last, create a session printer policy, add the network printers that will use the Universal Print Server, and apply the policy to the users in Chicago. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/citrix-virtual-apps-desktops/policies/reference/ica-policy-settings/printing-policysettings/client-printers-policy-settings.html
QUESTION 10 Scenario: The IT team of a company configured its Citrix environment on Microsoft Azure. Load on the servers is nominal during the offseason, but during peak season, load increases on the infrastructure servers. This load varies from year to year. A Citrix Architect is asked to design a solution that dynamically increases and decreases the number of infrastructure servers. What should the architect recommend the IT team create in Microsoft Azure to meet this demand? A. Availability sets B. Resource group C. Scale sets D. Availability domains Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.citrix.com/en-us/advanced-concepts/implementation-guides/citrix-adc-vpx-on-azure-autoscaledeployment-guide.html
QUESTION 11 A Citrix Architect is designing the Access Layer for a company that supports active-active mode for Citrix Gateway, as well as an on-premises, two-factor authentication solution. Which feature supports this requirement? A. Citrix ADC Standard edition or higher B. Citrix ADC Cluster C. High-availability pair D. Citrix Gateway Service Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 What are three things a Citrix Architect should when using thin clones with Machine Creation Services (MCS)? (Choose three.) A. Storage and virtual machine (VM) migration may be more complex when compared to full clones. B. Provisioning speed is slower when compared to full clones. C. Storage fragmentation may occur over time. D. Storage space should be closely monitored. E. Higher storage space is required when compared to full clones. Correct Answer: CDE
QUESTION 13 Scenario: A Citrix Architect has developed the hardware requirements for a small production Citrix Virtual Apps and Desktops environment as follows: Access to the environment hosted in a single data center Ability to perform maintenance on the environment without requiring an outage Keep management efforts to a minimum Which hardware requirement does the architect need to include for Citrix Hypervisor hosts to meet the customer\\’s needs? A. N+1 Citrix Hypervisor hosts in a single cluster/pool B. Separate Citrix Hypervisor cluster/pool in an alternate data center C. Multiple individual Citrix Hypervisor hosts in the same data center D. Separate Citrix Hypervisor clusters/pools in the same data center Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Based on the exhibit, what does the “X”, “Y”, and “Z” represent in a NAS environment?
A. X = FC SAN, Y = IP Network, and Z = NAS Gateway B. X = IP Network, Y = FC SAN, and Z = NAS Gateway C. X = FC SAN, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z= IP Network D. X = IP Network, Y = NAS Gateway, and Z = FC SAN Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 In a compute-based storage area network (SAN), what is a function of the metadata manager? A. Holds cluster-wide mapping information and load balancing in a compute-based SAN. B. Performs the I/O operations on the local storage of a compute system as requested by a client. C. Provides an interface to the software-defined storage controller. D. Controls all data read and write operations in a compute-based SAN. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 When using the erasure coding technique in an object-based storage system, data is divided into 12 data segments and 4 coding segments. What is the maximum number of disk drive failures against which data is protected by the configuration? A. 3 B. 4 C. 8 D. 12 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 Why are organizations moving towards a modern data center implementation? A. Develop modern applications in the public cloud without having the right skill set in-house. B. Ability to be agile, operate in real time, and develop intelligent products. C. Deploy only unified and converged IT resources to reduce the management complexity. D. Reduce the cost of managing data center components by using a self-service catalog. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.actualtechmedia.com/wp-content/uploads/2018/05/Building-a-Modern-Data-Center-ebook.pdf
Expertly Designed & Valid DES-1721 Questions: Practice Test
QUESTION 1
Based on the exhibit, a customer is using Virtual Port Mode. If the primary path for the controller on the “left” is disconnected while running an IOmeter test for a volume owned by the “left” controller, will the system survive failover? A. Yes, Virtual Port Mode will failover the I/O through the other available paths. B. No, Virtual Port Mode does not support port failover. C. No, the system does not have reserved paths to perform failover. D. Yes, the reserved path will be active and I/O will continue. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Why should Legacy Port Mode be selected rather than Virtual Port Mode on an SC Series storage array? A. Virtual Port Mode requires NPIV support B. Legacy Port Mode is easier to set up and more reliable C. Virtual Port Mode is difficult to set up D. Virtual Port Mode does not support ALUA Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which SC Series licenses are applied at the factory? A. SC4020 and SC7020 B. SC7020 and SCv2000 C. SC8000 and SC9000 D. SCv2000 and SC8000 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Why would the Key Management Server (KMS) Settings page appear during installation? A. Page appears only if SED drives are present B. Page only appears if an external KMS is defined during setup and configuration C. Page is standard and always appears as part of the installation and configuration D. Page only appears if a security certificate is not generated Correct Answer: A Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/cfs-file/__key/telligent-evolution-componentsattachments/13-4491-00-00-20-44-02-04/ Securing_2D00_SC_2D00_Series_2D00_storage_2D00_best_2D00_practice s_2D00_Dell_2D00_2016_2D002800_BP1082_2900_.pdf?forcedownload=true
QUESTION 5 A customer is running the Dell Storage Manager (DSM) Suite as a software stack on Microsoft Windows. To reduce the Microsoft licensing costs, the customer wants to switch to the DSM Virtual Appliance. Which recommended deployment should the customer use? A. Configure as a Primary Data Collector B. Configure as a Remote Data Collector C. Migrate the DSM database manually D. Migrate from the existing Data Collector Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit.
In the NMM backup workflow, which process is shown in the box marked “A”? A. nsrsnap_vss_save B. nsrsnap_save C. nsr_moss_save D. nsr_ad_save Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Based on the exhibit, what is the size of the Dell EMC NetWorker synthetic full backup on Saturday? A. 1.5 TB B. 1.7 TB C. 2.1 TB D. 2.45 TB Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 When adding an EMC NetWorker server\\’s name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service must be restarted on the client for the change to take effect? A. nsrexecd B. nsrd C. nsrindexd D. nsrdb Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4 A customer is running an EMC NetWorker 7.6 server on a UNIX platform and wants to monitor backup operations from the command line. Which utility can be used? A. nsrinfo B. nsrmmd C. nsrjb D. nsrwatch Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 An EMC NetWorker customer uses a custom schedule for backups and has disabled autostart in all savegroups. Backup reports indicate that a bootstrap backup occurs after each savegroup is run. What can you do to ensure that only one bootstrap backup occurs daily? A. Place the NetWorker server in its own group and enable autostart. B. Run savegrp -O manually for each group. C. Disable manual saves in the server configuration. D. Run a savefs -O manually for each group. Correct Answer: A
Expertly Designed & Valid E20-597 Questions: Practice Test
QUESTION 1 An Administrator needs to back up a Windows file server that has a million small files in a high density file system. What is the best way to fulfill the Administrator\\’s requirements? A. Block level backup using SnapImage B. Volume level backup C. Enable client-side compression D. Increase client parallelism Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 A backup administrator is configuring Dell EMC Networker to use Data Domain Cloud Tier devices. During the configuration, a message appears that the Data Domain data movement policy will be updated to an app-based policy. What is a function of the app-based policy? A. Direct the NetWorker clone action to copy data to the Data Domain Cloud Tier device B. Direct the NetWorker backup action to copy data directly to the cloud provider C. Direct the NetWorker backup action to copy data to the Data Domain device D. Direct the Data Domain system to copy data to the cloud provider Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.dellemc.com/en-us/collaterals/unauth/technical-guides-supportinformation/products/networking-4/docu85859.pdf
QUESTION 3 What is a benefit of using remote devices in Dell EMC NetWorker? A. Allow the backup workload to be distributed to multiple storage nodes B. Save backup time by using image-level backup processing C. Isolate groups of clients from other clients in the datazone D. Reduce the capacity requirements for backup storage Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 A company is running an EMC NetWorker server on a UNIX platform and wants to monitor backup operations from the UNIX command line. Which utility can be used? A. nsrwatch B. nsradmin C. nsrinfo D. nsralist Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5 In EMC NetWorker, which utility is used to view the “daemon.raw” file using the locale of the current host? A. nsr_render_log B. nsr_la C. nsr_layout D. nsr_task Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 Which set of commands can identify the publishd port(s) for a container? (Choose 1.) A. \\’docker port inspect\\’, \\’docker container inspect\\’ B. \\’docker container inspect\\’, docker port\\’ C. \\’docker info\\’,\\’docker network inspect\\’ D. \\’docker network inspect\\’,\\’docker port\\’ Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 What is the purpose of multi-stage builds? A. Better logical separation of Dockerfile instructions for better readability B. Optimizing images by copying artifacts selectively from previous stages C. Better caching when building Docker images D. Faster image builds by allowing parallel execution of Docker builds Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 What is the difference between the ADD and COPY dockerfile instructions? (choosen 2) A. ADD supports compression format handling while COPY does not. B. COPY supports regular expression handling while ADD does not. C. COPY supports compression format handling while ADD does not. D. ADD support remote URL handling while COPY does not. E. ADD supports regular expression handling while COPY does not. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 4 You have just executed \\’docker swarm leave\\’ on a node. What command can be run on the same node to confirm it has left the cluster? A. docker node ls B. docker system info C. docker system status D. docker system status Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5 Will this action upgrade Docker Engine CE to Docker Engine EE? Solution: Uninstall \\’docker-ce\\’ package before installing \\’docker-ee\\’ package. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Is this statement correct? Solution: A Dockerfile provides instructions for building a Docker image A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 One of several containers in a pod is marked as unhealthy after failing its livenessProbe many times. Is this the action taken by the orchestrator to fix the unhealthy container? Solution: Kubernetes automatically triggers a user-defined script to attempt to fix the unhealthy container. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8 Are these conditions sufficient for Kubernetes to dynamically provision a persistentVolume, assuming there are no limitations on the amount and type of available external storage? Solution: A default storageClass is specified, and subsequently a persistentVolumeClaim is created. A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 Which one of the following commands will result in the volume being removed automatically once the container has exited? A. \\’docker run –del -v /foo busybox\\’ B. \\’docker run –read-only -v /foo busybox\\’ C. \\’docker run –rm -v /foo busybox\\’ D. \\’docker run –remove -v /foo busybox\\’ Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 10 Which \\’docker run\\’ flag lifts cgroup limitations? A. \\’docker run –isolation\\’ B. \\’docker run –cap-drop\\’ C. \\’docker run –privileged\\’ D. \\’docker run –cpu-period\\’ Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11 A docker service \\’web\\’ is running with a scale factor of 1 (replicas = 1). Bob intends to use the command \\’docker service update –replicas=3 web\\’. Alice intends to use the command \\’docker service scale web=3\\’. How do the outcomes oft these two commands differ? A. Bob\\’s command results in an error. Alice\\’s command updates the number of replicas of the \\’web\\’ service to 3. B. Bob\\’s command only updates the service definition, but no new replicas are started. Alice\\’s command results in the actual scaling up of the \\’web\\’ service. C. Bob\\’s command updates the number of replicas of the \\’web\\’ service to 3. Alice\\’s command results in an error. D. Both Bob\\’s and Alice\\’s commands result in exactly the same outcome, which is 3 instances of the \\’web\\’ service. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12 How do you configure Docker engine to use a registry that is not configured with TLS certificates from a trusted CA? A. Set IGNORE_TLS in the \\’daemon.json\\’ configuration file. B. Set and export the IGNORE_TLS environment variable on the command line C. Set INSECURE_REGISTRY in the \\’/etc/docker/default\\’ configuration file D. Pass the \\’–insecure.-registry\\’ flag to the daemon at run time Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A user is having problems running Docker. Which of the following will start Docker in debug mode? A. Set the debug key to true in the \\’daemon.json\\’ file. B. Start the \\’dockerd\\’ process manually with the \\’–logging\\’ flag set to debug C. Set the logging key to debug in the \\’daemon.json\\’ file. D. Start the \\’dockerd\\’ process manually with the \\’–raw-logs\\’ flag set to debug Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 1 A Fibre Channel interface on a Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switch receives bit errors, and the switch disables the interface. A temporary workaround must be implemented before the root cause is identified. Which action does an engineer take to prevent this issue from reoccurring? A. Verify that the SFPs are supported. B. Change the SFP to operate at 4 Gbps instead of 2 Gbps. C. Run the shutdown and then no shutdown command on the interface. D. Run the switchport ignore bit-errors command on the interface. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 In Cisco UCS Central you have a certificate that has the status set to Not Yet Valid. Which scenario could cause the issue? A. The certificate field is empty. B. The time is incorrectly synchronized. C. The trusted point uses a bundled certificate that has a minimum depth of 10. D. The certificate is issued by a different trusted point. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3 Cisco Unified Computing System Manager raises a critical error message that indicates that the system has overlapping Ethernet and FCoE VLANs. All of the Ethernet traffic on the overlapping VLANs drops. Which action resolves the issue? A. Modify the VLAN assignment to vNICs. B. Change the PIN groups on the vHBAs. C. Modify the FCoE VLAN. D. Set the FCoE VLAN as the native VLAN on server uplinks. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is performed, guestshell continues to use 2%CPU. Which action resolves the issue? A. Resync the database B. Recreate the guestshell C. Reboot the guestshell D. Reboot the switch Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 A customer has a Cisco UCS Center cluster. The customer configures LDAP as the AAA protocol and enables SSL for LDAP. The LDAP authentication fails. Which issue is the cause of the failure? A. The LDAP client passed an incorrect from the trustpoint. B. The ca certificate is missing from the trustpoints. C. The LDAP server limit that is set by an administrative authority was exceeded. D. The LDAP time limit that is specified by either the client or the server was exceeded. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6 An engineer is troubleshooting a packet flow from an access leaf to spine. Which EVPN routes are expected on this connection? A. EVPN Type 1-5 B. EVPN Type 0,9,15 C. EVPN Type 9-15 D. EVPN Type 0,16 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the correct categories on the right.
QUESTION 8 DRAG DROP Drag and drop the Cisco UCS SNMP fault types from the left onto the correct issues on the right.
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.
Boot from SAN fails. The host fails to detect the LUNs. You must resolve the issue. Drag and drop the WWPNs on the left to the correct zones on the right.
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. A web browser displays a “not secure” warning message when accessing the web interface of Cisco UCS Manager. Which action resolves the issue? A. Load third-party certificate to UCS Manager. B. Use the correct TCP port for HTTPS. C. Use a supported web browser. D. Use a supported version of UCS Manager. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11 The Cisco Nexus switch is connected to a peer switch that is not running Cisco NX-OS. The switches are connected using port channel and are experiencing packet loss. Which action should be performed on the Cisco Nexus switch ports to resolve this issue? A. Turn on lacp suspend-individual. B. Turn on lacp graceful-convergence. C. Turn off lacp graceful-convergence. D. Turn off lacp suspend-individual. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. An OSPF adjacency between Router-A and Router-B cannot reach the FULL state. Which action resolves the issue? A. Adjust the MTU on Router-A to 1600. B. Disable the check of the MTU value. C. Set the OSPF media type to point-to-point. D. Adjust the MTU on Router-B to 1604. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 Refer to the exhibit. A remote device connected to fc 1/2 fails to come online. Which do you configure to resolve the issue?
A. remote and local ports to be in the correct VSAN B. local switch for NPV C. remote device for NPIV D. port on remote device as an f-port-channel Correct Answer: A
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Vendor: Cisco Certifications: Cisco Certified Network Professional Exam Code: 300-615 Exam Name: Troubleshooting Cisco Data Center Infrastructure Exam Updated: Aug 10, 2020 Q&As: 75
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