Index

Maximize exam scores with the new NS0-194 dumps.

Download the new NS0-194 Dumps 2024 (Pass4itSure) – Practice the real NS0-194 Dumps new practice questions 60+ https://www.pass4itsure.com/ns0-194.html PDF or VCE mode to prepare for the NetApp Certified Support Engineer exam.

As technology continues to advance at a rapid pace, it is becoming increasingly important for IT professionals to stay updated with the latest skills and knowledge. One way to demonstrate your expertise in the field is by obtaining relevant certifications. The NS0-194 certification exam is designed to validate your proficiency in NetApp Certified Support Engineer (NCSE) technology.

In this article, we will explore how you can maximize your exam performance by utilizing the new NS0-194 dumps.

Let’s start with the free NS0-194 practice questions that interest you the most.

2023 vs 2024

Let’s start with two sets of NS0-194 exam questions from different periods, so that you can learn and learn, and experience the latest meaning in the process of learning.

The following two sets of exercises are titled 2023 (December) and 2024 (as of now).

Share Free New NS0-194 Dumps NS0-194 Practice Questions(2023.12)

From: Pass4itSure
Number of issues: 15/60
More NetApp Certification Exams…

Question 1:

A customer has reported an unexplained reboot of an ONTAP node that did not generate a panic string or a core file.

In this scenario, which two sets of logs do you collect to further diagnose the issue? (Choose two.)

A. system core

B. sp status

C. events all

D. sp status -d

Correct Answer: AC

Question 2:

How many data-serving SVMs are supported with Cloud Volumes ONTAP that is running ONTAP 9.5?

A. 128

B. 1024

C. 1

D. 10

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/cloud-volumes-ontap/reference_limitations_95.html

Question 3:

A customer ordered a FAS2720 cluster with 8 TB SATA drives. The customer wants to use the Advanced Drive Partitioning (ADP) feature to avoid consuming the high-capacity drives for the root aggregate. Before you use the cluster setup, you issue the aggr status command and notice that ADP is not being used.

In this scenario, what would you use to implement ADP?

A. loader prompt

B. special boot menu

C. node shell

D. SP prompt

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

You observe cyclic redundancy check (CRC) errors on a network port from a node in the cluster.

Which two components would you consider reseating or replacing before you perform actions on the physical port where the errors are reported from the node? (Choose two.)

A. SFP

B. cluster interconnect switch

C. up-stream switch

D. cable

Correct Answer: CD

Question 5:

Your Windows clients were able to access your CIFS SVM yesterday. Today they are no longer able to access the CIFS SVM on your NetApp cluster. Your IT security team just pushed out a new group policy to enhance security.

In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. Your CIFS SVM is not using DNS.

B. Your CIFS SVM is configured to use SMBv1 and SMBv2.

C. Your CIFS SVM is configured for NFSv3 access.

D. Your CIFS SVM is configured for the wrong domain.

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

When you replace a motherboard, which step will completely test the newly installed component?

A. From ONTAP, execute sldiag.

B. From the LOADER prompt, type boot_ontap maint, then execute sliding.

C. From the LOADER prompt, type boot_diags, then execute sldiag.

D. From the LOADER prompt, execute sliding.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMP1199896 (36)

Question 7:

What is the minimum number of compute nodes required to run the NetApp Deployment Engine for NetApp HCI?

A. 2

B. 1

C. 3

D. 4

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/hci/docs/task_hci_getstarted.html#:~:text=The%20minimum% 20cluster%20for%20NetApp,to%20all%20NetApp%20HCI%20networks.

Question 8:

Referring to the exhibit, the UNIX user “prof1” will be looked up in which source first?

A. nis

B. dns

C. ldap

D. files

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

You are using FCP and iSCSI protocols from your clients with ONTAP as the target. You want to ensure that storage failover (SFO) works correctly for your clients.

In this scenario, which two features of the initiator and the target will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. LACP

B. MPIO

C. ALUA

D. SCSI

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/media/10680-tr4080.pdf

Question 10:

What are two supported cabling methods for a NetApp HCI compute node? (Choose two.)

A. 1-cable configuration

B. 2-cable configuration

C. 6-cable configuration

D. 4-cable configuration

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://library.netapp.com/ecm/ecm_download_file/ECMLP2856899 (11)

Question 11:

How many drive bays does a DS4246 shelf have?

A. 42

B. 12

C. 46

D. 24

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.insight.com/en_US/shop/product/DS4246074812AQSR6/NETAPP/DS4246-074812A-QS-R6/NetAppStorageShelfDS4246-Storageenclosure-24bays(SAS-2)-HDD4TBx12-rack-mountable4U/

Question 12:

A customer asks what is the correct way to configure an ONTAP system for multi-tenancy. The customer wants to serve data and also protect data using SnapMirror from tenant A using network A and from tenant B using network B.

In this scenario, which statement is correct?

A. The customer must use different VLANs for the two tenants.

B. This setup can only work if tenant A and tenant B use a shared network infrastructure.

C. The customer must set up two different spaces for the two tenants.

D. Each node can only communicate with tenant A or tenant B, but not with both at the same time.

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

A user can read and write some files on an NFS volume, but the user is unable to read all of the files in the volume.

In this scenario, which command will help you troubleshoot this problem?

A. security login create

B. security audit show

C. server security trace filter create

D. server export-policy check-access

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

You are using AFF storage with the NVMe storage protocol on your Linux clients.

In this scenario, which NVMe feature must be present and enabled for the client to see storage failover happen?

A. Asymmetric Namespace Access (ANA)

B. Multi-Path I/O (MPIO)

C. Asymmetric Logical Unit Access (ALUA)

D. NVMe Qualified Name (NQN)

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

For testing purposes, your customer decides to use FC on a single-node ONTAP cluster. There is only one host that the customer expects to use. High availability is not a concern for this test. The customer connects the host directly to the ONTAP node. The LUN is set up, and the group is configured. When the customer tries to attach to the LUN from the host, the LUN is not seen by the host.

Which statement is correct in this scenario?

A. Multipathing must be used and connected to another FC path.

B. NPV must be enabled on the host before trying to attach to the LUN.

C. NPIV must be enabled on the host before trying to attach to the LUN.

D. An FC switch must be used with ONTAP.

Correct Answer: B

---

2024 New NS0-194 Dumps NS0-194 Practice Questions

From: Pass4itSure
Number of issues: 10/60
Updated: Apr 16, 2024

Q1:

You have an ONTAP 2-node cluster. You run a read/write test workload against an SMB share, and it is slower than you expected. You run the same test again, but this time you monitor the storage using a QoS command.

Referring to the exhibit, what is the problem?

A. There is a disk bottleneck.

B. An HA interconnect problem is present.

C. The SMB read sizes should be increased.

D. The NVRAM needs to be replaced.

Correct Answer: B

Q2:

In the AFF A200 shown in the exhibit, which port is a CNA port?

A. |0|0|

B. e0c/0c

C. e0a

D. 0a

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/platstor/topic/com.netapp.doc.hw-2700-install-setup/GUID-FE4BD3C8-3DB4-438A-A5CE-FEEF74AE8BAF.html

Q3:

You want to use the supported method to upgrade the ONTAP version of a Cloud Volumes ONTAP instance from ONTAP 9.5 to ONTAP 9.6.

In this scenario, which NetApp tool accomplishes this task?

A. Cloud Manager

B. Cloud Insights

C. Active IQ Unified Manager

D. ONTAP System Manager

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.netapp.com/us-en/occm/task_updating_ontap_cloud.html#suspending-snapmirrortransfers

Q4:

A volume was accidentally deleted two hours ago by another administrator. No backups exist.

In this scenario, what do you do to restore the data?

A. Use the ONTAP System Manager to recover the volume.

B. Use a volume snapshot to return the data to the active file system.

C. Use the volume recovery queue to restore the volume.

D. Use an aggregate snapshot to revert the aggregate to an earlier state.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: http://docs.netapp.com/ontap-9/index.jsp?topic=%2Fcom.netapp.doc.dot-cm-vsmg%2FGUIDD4E85AB5-EEBB-44B4-A648-5B1B04FD5F85.html

Q5:

Which two statements describe ONTAP NVRAM? (Choose two.)

A. ONTAP NVRAM is used as a read cache.

B. ONTAP NVRAM stores uncommitted writes.

C. ONTAP NVRAM is used as a write cache.

D. ONTAP NVRAM is battery-backed.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://kb.netapp.com/Advice_and_Troubleshooting/Data_Storage_Software/ONTAP_OS/FAQ%3A_Consistency_Point

Q6:

Referring to the exhibit, which two components should be examined? (Choose two.)

A. cluster switches

B. SAS adapter

C. network interface card

D. disk

Correct Answer: BD

Q7:

The details from within Active IQ Cluster Viewer are downloadable in which three file formats? (Choose three.)

A. PDF

B. CSV

C. XLS

D. DOC

E. HTML

Correct Answer: ABC

Q8:

Which NetApp technology enables a volume to span across one or more aggregates and one or more NetApp nodes?

A. FlexVol

B. Flash Pool

C. Flash Cache

D. FlexGroup

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.netapp.com/pdf.html?item=/media/17251-tr4571apdf.pdf (3)

Q9:

Which NetApp technology enables you to perform block-based replication from NetApp Element software to Cloud Volumes ONTAP?

A. SyncMirror

B. SnapMirror

C. Cloud Sync

D. MetroCluster

Correct Answer: B

Q10:

Your Windows clients were able to access your CIFS SVM yesterday. Today they are no longer able to access the CIFS SVM on your NetApp cluster. Your IT security team just pushed out a new group policy to enhance security.

In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. Your CIFS SVM is not using DNS.

B. Your CIFS SVM is configured to use SMBv1 and SMBv2.

C. Your CIFS SVM is configured for NFSv3 access.

D. Your CIFS SVM is configured for the wrong domain.

Correct Answer: A

As you can see from the practice questions above, Pass4itSure NS0-194 dumps are always updated to provide you with the latest exam questions.

The importance of exam preparation

Proper exam preparation is crucial for achieving your certification goals. Without thorough preparation, you may find it difficult to pass the NS0-194 exam and obtain the desired certification. The exam covers a wide range of topics, including troubleshooting, installation, and configuration of NetApp storage systems. By dedicating adequate time and effort to exam preparation, you can enhance your understanding of these concepts and increase your chances of success.

Overview Of New NS0-194 Dumps

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The new NS0-194 dumps come with a range of features that facilitate effective learning. One of the key features is the comprehensive coverage of exam topics.

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While going through the dumps, make sure to read the explanations carefully and understand the underlying concepts. Rather than simply memorizing the answers, strive to comprehend the reasoning behind each solution. This will not only help you during the exam but also in real-world scenarios.

Additionally, take advantage of the practice questions and mock exams provided in the dumps. These are invaluable tools for self-assessment and can help you gauge your level of preparedness. Identify any weak areas and revisit the corresponding topics to strengthen your understanding.

Other Resources For Exam Preparation

While the new NS0-194 dumps are an excellent resource for exam preparation, it is always beneficial to explore additional study materials.

• Official NetApp documentation
• Online forums
• Community groups to gain a broader perspective on the exam topics.
• Engaging in discussions with fellow candidates can provide valuable insights and help clarify any doubts you may have.

Tips for Maximizing Your Exam Performance

In addition to using the new NS0-194 dumps, several tips can help maximize your exam performance:

1. Create a study schedule and stick to it. Consistency is key in exam preparation.
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3. Practice time management during the exam to ensure you complete all the questions within the allocated time.
4. Familiarize yourself with the exam format and structure beforehand to reduce exam anxiety.
5. Utilize mnemonic devices or other memory aids to remember key concepts and information.

By implementing these tips and utilizing the new NS0-194 dumps, you can significantly enhance your chances of success in the certification exam.

Conclusion and Final Thoughts

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With the new NS0-194 Dumps 2024 https://www.pass4itsure.com/ns0-194.html new practice questions in PDF or VCE format, you can take the exam with confidence and increase your chances of success. Start your certification journey today and open up new possibilities for your career.

How to study for the Cisco 300-730 exam properly? You should get 300-730 SVPN dumps 2024 new practice questions.

You have a good choice. Go to Pass4itSure and download 300-730 SVPN dumps 2024 https://www.pass4itsure.com/300-730.html (PDF or VCE format) to get the latest 300-730 SVPN practice questions 188+ to practice.

What’s changing in Cisco CCNP in 2024

The 300-730 exam belongs to the Cisco CCNP system, so it’s important to understand how the CCNP will change in 2024.

The CCNP demonstrates the knowledge and skills needed to manage, configure, and troubleshoot LAN, WAN, and security networks. To earn a CCNP certification, a person must pass two exams: a core exam (each subject has its core exam) and a centralized exam.

There are currently seven pathways available for CCNP certification:

1. Enterprise
2. Safe
3. Data Centers
4. Service Providers
5. Cooperate
6. Development Network
7. Cyber Operations

The cost of getting CCNP certification in 2024 is quite high, and you need to prepare carefully.
In 2024, the maintenance of CCNP cannot be stopped, and CCNP is not a one-and-done process. Must be maintained by passing a regular exam or passing any higher certification exam.
There is an increase in the difficulty of passing the CCNP certification exam in 2024.

Some 300-730 SVPN dumps 2024 free practice questions to share:

Come from: Pass4itSure
Number of Questions: 1-15
Certifications: CCNP Security， Cisco Certified Specialist – Network Security VPN Implementation

Question 1:

Where is split tunneling defined for IKEv2 remote access clients on a Cisco router?

A. IKEv2 authorization policy

B. Group Policy

C. virtual template

D. webvpn context

Correct Answer: A

VPN-ROUTER(config)# ip access-list extended SPLIT_TUNNEL_ACL VPN-ROUTER(config-std-nacl)# permit 172.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 VPN-ROUTER(config-std-nacl)# VPN-ROUTER(config-std-nacl)# crypto ikev2 authorization policy EMPLOYEES VPN-ROUTER(config-ikev2-author-policy)# route set access-list SPLIT_TUNNEL_ACL

Question 2:

An engineer has configured Cisco AnyConnect VPN using IKEv2 on a Cisco IOS router. The user cannot connect to the Cisco AnyConnect client, but receives an alert message “Use a browser to gain access.” Which action does the engineer take to resolve this issue?

A. Reset user login credentials.

B. Correct the URL address.

C. Connect using HTTPS.

D. Disable the HTTP server.

Correct Answer: D

Question 3:

An engineer is implementing the FlexVPN solution on a Cisco IOS router. The router must only terminate VPN requests and must not initiate them. Additionally, the interface must support VPNs from other routers and Cisco AnyConnect connections. Which interface type must be configured to meet these requirements?

A. point-to-point GRE tunnel interface

B. multipoint GRE tunnel interface

C. static virtual tunnel interface

D. virtual template interface

Correct Answer: D

Question 4:

What are the two differences between ECC and RSA? (Choose two.)

A. Key generation in ECC is slower and more CPU-intensive than RSA.

B. ECC can have the same security as RSA but with a shorter key size.

C. ECC cannot have the same security as RSA, even with an increased key size.

D. Key generation in ECC is faster and less CPU-intensive than RSA.

E. ECC lags in performance when compared with RSA.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 5:

Which VPN does VPN load balancing on the ASA support?

A. VTI

B. IPsec site-to-site tunnels

C. L2TP over IPsec

D. Cisco AnyConnect

Correct Answer: D

Question 6:

An administrator is setting up Cisco AnyConnect on a Cisco ASA with the requirement that AnyConnect automatically establishes a VPN when a company-owned laptop is connected to the internet outside of the corporate network. Which configuration meets these requirements?

A. SBL with user certificate authentication

B. TND with machine certificate authentication

C. SBL with machine certificate authentication

D. TND with user certificate authentication

Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Which two types of SSO functionality are available on the Cisco ASA without any external SSO servers? (Choose two.)

A. SAML

B. NTLM

C. Kerberos

D. OAuth 2.0

E. HTTP Basic

Correct Answer: BE

Question 8:

Which VPN technology minimizes the impact on VPN performance when encrypting multicast traffic on a Private WAN?

A. DMVPN

B. IPsec VPN

C. FlexVPN

D. GETVPN

Correct Answer: D

Question 9:

Users are getting untrusted server warnings when they connect to the URL https://asa.lab from their browsers. This URL resolves to 192.168.10.10, which is the IP address for a Cisco ASA configured for a clientless VPN. The VPN was recently set up and issued a certificate from an internal CA server. Users can connect to the VPN by ignoring the message, however, when users access other webservers that use certificates issued by the same internal CA server, they do not experience this issue. Which action resolves this issue?

A. Import the CA that signed the certificate into the machine’s trusted root CA store.

B. Reissue the certificate with Asa. lab in the subject alternative name field.

C. Import the CA that signed the certificate into the user-trusted root CA store.

D. Reissue the certificate with 192.168.10.10 in the subject common name field.

Correct Answer: C

Question 10:

After a user configures a connection profile with a bookmark list and tests the clientless SSLVPN connection, all of the bookmarks are grayed out. What must be done to correct this behavior?

A. Apply the bookmark to the correct group policy.

B. Specify the correct port for the web server under the bookmark.

C. Configure a DNS server on the Cisco ASA and verify it has a record for the web server.

D. Verify HTTP/HTTPS connectivity between the Cisco ASA and the web server.

Correct Answer: C

Question 11:

A network engineer is setting up a clientless SSLVPN on a Cisco ASA. Remote users must be able to access an internal web server via the URL example.com. Which two steps accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a bookmark for the webserver.

B. Configure routing so that the user\’s computer can reach the web server.

C. Configure a DNS server that can resolve the web server URL.

D. Configure a browser plugin on the Cisco ASA.

E. Configure routing so that the Cisco ASA can reach the web server.

Correct Answer: AC

it is a web server, so you need a bookmark it and DNS to resolve the name to IP address, no plug-in is required here

Question 12:

An engineer is using DMVPN to provide secure connectivity between a data center and remote sites. Which two routing protocols should be used between the routers? (Choose two.)

A. IS-IS

B. BGP

C. RIPv2

D. OSPF

E. EIGRP

Correct Answer: BE

Question 13:

While troubleshooting, an engineer finds that the show crypto isakmp sa command indicates that the last state of the tunnel is MM_KEY_EXCH. What is the next step that should be taken to resolve this issue?

A. Verify that the ISAKMP proposals match.

B. Ensure that UDP 500 is not being blocked between the devices.

C. Correct the peer\’s IP address on the crypto map.

D. Confirm that the pre-shared keys match on both devices.

Correct Answer: C

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of mismatch is causing the problem with the IPsec VPN tunnel?

A. crypto access list

B. Phase 1 policy

C. transform set

D. preshared key

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-protocols/5409-ipsec-debug-00.html#ike

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

Upon setting up a tunnel between two sites, users are complaining that connections to applications over the VPN are not working consistently. The output of show crypto ipsec sa was collected on one of the VPN devices. Based on this output, what should be done to fix this issue?

A. Lower the tunnel MTU.

B. Enable perfect forward secrecy.

C. Specify the application networks in the remote identity.

D. Make an adjustment to the IPSec replay window.

Correct Answer: D

More Cisco Exam Questions…

What do you need to study to pass the 300-730 SVPN exam?

Many companies are advancing cyber security, and employees with some knowledge of Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks will be able to keep up with the company’s growth.

Therefore, in the year 2024, you should master some sufficient 300-730 SVPN knowledge to adapt to the ever-changing IT era and enhance your competitiveness in the workplace!

If you want to improve your Cisco 300-730 SVPN exam capabilities, take advantage of Pass4itSure’s new offer (Premium Program for IT Exam Dumps) to download the new 300-730 SVPN dumps 2024.

First of all, you need to understand the Cisco 300-730 exam

The 300-730 SVPN exam measures your knowledge and skills related to implementing secure remote communications using a virtual private network (VPN) solution, including secure communications, architecture, and troubleshooting.

The 300-730 SVPN exam is about the CCNP security certificate, and to earn the CCNP security certificate, applicants choose different focused exams as the second step in their CCNP security certification journey, and the Cisco 300-730 is one of the six focused exams.

It is a 90-minute exam related to the CCNP security certification. You’ll need to answer 55-65 questions within that time, pass 750-850 out of 1000, and spend $400.

After comprehending the exam, you need some effective 300-730 study resources.

2024 new Cisco 300-730 exam study resource sharing

Various forms of learning resources are shared, with links for everyone’s reference.

Document format:

• CCNP Security
• Implementing Secure Solutions with Virtual Private Networks (SVPN) v1.0

Book format:

You can buy books about 300-730 SVPN on the Cisco Press website.

1. CCNP Security Virtual Private Networks SVPN 300-730 Official Cert Guide
2. CCNA security official exam certification guide

Video format:

SVPN training videos

You want to know the 300-730 SVPN questions and answers:

How to get real 300-730 dumps in 2024?

You can get it on the Pass4itSure website.

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First of all, you have to concentrate and go all out, and secondly, get 300-730 SVPN dumps in 2024.

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Write to the end:

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Practice some New Pass4itsure MB-260 dumps exam material online

From	Number of exam questions
Pass4itsure	15

Question 1:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. Your company\’s information technology department (IT) has a CSV file stored on one of their Shared Documents folder within their SharePoint sites which they have ingested into audience insights.

The file contains a row header with some special characters, columns of different types (quantities, prices, etc.), and some rows with a high proportion of nulls and missing primary keys. You have been asked to clean and transform the data in audience insights to be ready for unification.

What should you do?

Solution: Clean the data by transforming the first row to be used as headers and removing any special characters in the header, defining column types to be appropriate field types, removing any rows with missing primary keys, and naming the query.

Create a full name and full address columns by merging the appropriate columns if they exist. Click “Next” and your data is now ready for unification.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/connect-power-query

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. The marketing manager at your company wants to understand the training model performance for a customer lifetime value (CLV) model you configured.

What do the possible training model performance grades signify? To answer, drag the appropriate definition to the correct grade value. Each definition may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. Some of the data your company stores need to adhere to strict organization compliance and security when establishing connections and exports.

Your information technology department tells you that you must use a dedicated Azure key vault with your audience insights environment to help the organization meet its compliance requirements.

The dedicated key vault will be used to stage and use secrets in an organization\’s compliance boundary.

Which two statements are true about using audience insights and Azure Key Vault to store the secrets for each of the connections set up?

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. You must have an administrator role in audience insights.

B. The key vault must have a Key Vault firewall enabled.

C. The key vault is in the same Azure location as the audience insights environment.

D. Audience insights can write secrets or overwrite secrets into the key vault.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/use-azure-key-vault

Question 4:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. You completed an initial implementation of audience insights.

The marketing team wants to send a survey to customers. The survey will determine their interest in several new services that your company may begin offering.

The marketing team will use a new survey website that can provide the results in a format that allows you to perform a custom SFTP import without going through the data unification process.

How can you display the levels of interest a customer has in each new service to users in Dynamics 365 Sales?

A. Configure an export to Dynamics 365 Sales, and add the fields to the contact form.

B. Enable the Customer Card Add-in. and add the timeline control to the contact form.

C. Create a Power Bl report that queries the activity timeline, and embeds it on the contact form.

D. Enable the Customer Card Add-in. and add the enrichment control to the contact form.

Correct Answer: D

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/customer-card-add-in https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/enrichment-sftp-custom-import

Question 5:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. You need to design a process to share the unified customer profile with the sales team. The sales team uses the Dynamics 365 Sales app for marketing list generation.

Which two conditions must be met to export segments needed by the sales team to the D365 Sales app? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. In order to export a segment of customers who have DOB to Dynamics 365 Sales to create marketing lists, a connection to the Dynamics 365 Sales environment must be configured.

B. Contacts do not have to be present in Dynamics 365 Sales because the export process will create new contact records if they do not already exist.

C. In order to export a segment of customers who have Loyalty email to Dynamics 365 Sales, a connection to the Dynamics 365 Sales environment must be configured.

D. Dynamics 365 Sales Contacts must be ingested into audience insights as a data source and included in the unified customer profile.

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/exportdynamics365-sales

Question 6:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. You are in the process of implementing audience insights at a bank.

You finished setting up the different initial data sources. You are starting the unification process.

Which three tasks do you need to perform in the Mapping phase of the unification process? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Identify the primary keys and semantic field types within the different entities.

B. Identify the entities that you need to unify into a single profile.

C. Identify the prioritization of similar fields between different entities.

D. Select the fields you want to include in the unified customer profile.

E. Identify rules for duplication between different entities.

Correct Answer: ABD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/map-entities

Question 7:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. You successfully installed the Customer Card Add-in and the required add-in control in Dynamics 365 Sales app.

You need to show customer enrichment data from audience insights in the Dynamics 365 Sales application.

Which two statements must be true for you to show the required data on a Customer Card Add-in control? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Customer details control is successfully installed and added to the Contact form.

B. Active enrichment is applied to customer profiles.

C. Contacts from Dynamics 365 Sales are included in the audience insights unification process.

D. Measure Control is successfully installed and added to the Contact form.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/customer-card-add-in

Question 8:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. Your information technology (IT) team created the customer profile records by unifying the Account, Contact, and Web Account tables.

After unification was complete, the team noticed that three relationships were created automatically (CustomerToContact, CustomerToAccount, and CustomerToWebAccount). The team needs to know how they can configure and update these three relationships.

What feedback should you provide?

A. Relationships created via the unification process can be edited by those with contributor-level access.

B. You can edit each of the three relationships by clicking on the Relationship tab and selecting Edit.

C. You cannot edit any of the three relationships, as they are non-editable system relationships.

D. Relationships created via the unification process can only be edited by those with administrator-level access.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/relationships

Question 9:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. Your organization recently implemented audience insights. You need to create a measure using the `Average Transaction Value\’ template to track the average spent by a customer.

As part of the process of creating the measure, you need to add data and map it to the data from the Unified Activity entity.

When you are setting up the measure, which two steps should you perform to complete this task? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Choose the attribute representing the Transaction value from the Unified Customer entity.

B. Choose the attribute representing the Transaction value from the Unified Activity entity.

C. Choose an activity type and select the entity with transactional data.

D. Choose either the Account or Contact entity to get the related transactional data.

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/measures?tabs=b2c

Question 10:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. You completed unification and are looking to create relevant segments for your business. You want to identify insights on fields that overlap between segments. Which statement is correct about using segment overlap?

A. Audience insights will recommend which fields may be the most insightful to use for segment overlap analysis.

B. You can select up to three fields to analyze for overlap analysis when you create a new segment overlap.

C. Audience insights will automatically select the fields for overlap analysis when you create a new segment overlap.

D. You can select one or more fields to analyze for overlap analysis when you create a new segment overlap.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/segment-insights

Question 11:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. Dynamics 365 Customer Insights (CI) users have complained that they are not able to quickly find customers using main demographic data points. You must ensure users are able to search for customers using any of the available fields.

Which two statements define the actions that should be completed to satisfy this requirement? Each option represents a partial solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Validate you have access to edit the Search and index pages in audience insights.

B. On the Search and Filter index pane, add Last Name, Full Name, and Email. Cell Phone.Street Address, and DOB fields to Index. Click Save and Run.

C. You must run Merge in order to view the newly added fields on the customer profile.

D. On the Search and filter index pane. Add Last Name, FullName, Email, Home Phone.DOB fields to Index. Click Save and Run.

Correct Answer: AB

The following fields from the unified customer record should be added to the index: Last Name, Full Name, Email, Cell Phone, Street Address, and DOB.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/searchfilter-index

Question 12:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. The primary audience for your instance of audience insights is business accounts. You need to show audience insights data to Dynamics 365 Sales users without updating data in Dataverse.

Which Customer Card Add-in controls require you to create semantic entity mapping before you can use it?

A. Contacts control

B. Intelligence control

C. Customer details control

D. Enrichments control

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-ins

Question 13:

Your team developed and integrated a batch inferencing pipeline to audience insights. This allows for a new custom machine learning (ML) model to run and deliver new insights to your unified profile data. Your team is manually running the custom machine learning workflows.

Which statement is correct about allowing your workflow to run automatically with every scheduled refresh?

A. You can configure scheduled refreshes for audience insights from Azure ML where you developed the custom ML model.

B. Your team can set up scheduled refreshes that allow your workflow to run automatically.

C. Your team needs to manually trigger your custom machine learning workflows.

D. Scheduled refreshes are not supported for custom machine-learning models that are connected to audience insights.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/custom-models https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/system#schedule-tab

Question 14:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. You are configuring a workflow for a custom model using an Azure Machine Learning batch pipeline. Configuring this type of model requires different parameters than Machine Learning Studio (Classic) models.

Which two configuration parameters are required specifically for Azure Machine Learning batch pipelines? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Output data store path

B. Output data store parameter name

C. Web service that contains your model

D. Entity name

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/custom-models

Question 15:

You are a Customer Data Platform Specialist. Your company\’s information technology team wants to use the out-of-the-box customer lifetime value (CLV) machine learning (ML) capabilities that come with audience insights, but the team has some concerns about the suitability of their data.

You need to confirm if their research about data requirements is correct.

Which two statements are correct about the data characteristic requirements for configuring the CLV ML model? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. There should be at least two to three transactions per customer ID. preferably across multiple dates.

B. There should be at least 100.000 unique customers to perform the CLV model.

C. There should be preferably two to three years of transactional data to predict CLV for one year.

D. The CLV model will not run if there is any missing data in the fields.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/customer-insights/audience-insights/predict-customer-lifetime-value

…

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200-301 CCNA dumps 2023 latest exam practice questions sharing

Question 1:

Which is the reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

A. Comply with PCI regulations.

B. Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers.

C. Reduce the risk of a network security breach.

D. Comply with local law.

Correct Answer: C

---

Question 2:

How does STP prevent forwarding loops at OSI Layer 2?

A. TTL

B. MAC address forwarding

C. Collision avoidance

D. Port blocking

Correct Answer: D

---

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

A. 0

B. 110

C. 38443

D. 3184439

Correct Answer: C

Both the line “O 172.16.0.128/25” and “S 172.16.0.0/24” cover the host 172.16.0.202 but with the “longest (prefix) match” rule the router will choose the first route.

---

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

A. metric

B. cost

C. longest prefix

D. administrative distance

Correct Answer: D

---

Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the virtualization concepts from the left onto the matching statements on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 6:

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

A. Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B. Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C. Run routing protocols.

D. Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E. Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Correct Answer: AD

Actions DATA PLANE:

?De-encapsulating and re-encapsulating a packet in a data-link frame (routers, Layer 3 switches)

?Adding or removing an 802.1Q trunking header (routers and switches)

?Matching an Ethernet frame\’s destination Media Access Control (MAC) address to the MAC address table (Layer 2 switches)

?Matching an IP packet\’s destination IP address to the IP routing table (routers, Layer 3 switches)

?Encrypting the data and adding a new IP header (for virtual private network processing)

?Changing the source or destination IP address (for Network Address Translation processing)

?Discarding a message due to a filter (access control lists , port security

---

Question 7:

Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)

A. A new switch has no VLANs configured.

B. Connectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.

C. VLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.

D. Each VLAN uses a separate address space.

E. A switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.

F. VLANs cannot span multiple switches.

Correct Answer: BDE

---

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. When running EIGRP, what is required for RouterA to exchange routing updates with RouterC?

A. AS numbers must be changed to match on all the routers

B. Loopback interfaces must be configured so a DR is elected

C. The no auto-summary command is needed on Router A and Router C

D. Router B needs to have two network statements, one for each connected network

Correct Answer: A

This question is to examine the understanding of the interaction between EIGRP routers. The following information must be matched so as to create a neighborhood. EIGRP routers to establish must match the following information:

1. AS Number;

2. K value.

---

Question 9:

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?

A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions.

B. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology.

C. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network

D. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions.

Correct Answer: A

---

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the interface that generated the output are true? (Choose two.)

A. Two secure MAC addresses are manually configured on the interface.

B. A Syslog message is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is on the interface.

C. The interface is error-disabled.

D. The interface dynamic ally learned two secure MAC addresses.

E. An SNMP trap is generated when the maximum number of secure MAC addresses is reached on the interface.

Correct Answer: CD

---

Question 11:

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

A. It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B. It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D. It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

Correct Answer: CE

---

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

A. Define a NAT pool on the router.

B. Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C. Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D. Update the NAT_INSIDE_RANGES ACL

Correct Answer: D

---

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.

B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.

C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.

D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.

E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Correct Answer: BC

A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chosen in the order below:

+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface.+ If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest IP address of all active routers \’s physical interfaces will be chosen. -> The loopback interface will be chosen as the router ID of RouterB?

---

Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

A. access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B. no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C. access-list 2699 permits tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D. no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

Correct Answer: D

Already a statement is there in the last to allow SSH Traffic for network 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127, but the Second

statement says to deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255, so how it will work once it is denied? So the right answer is remove the — no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255.

---

Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

---

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Microsoft PL-300 free exam questions answers

Question 1:

You are building a Power Bl report that uses data from an Azure SQL database named erp1. You Import the following tables.

You need to perform the following analyses:

1. Orders sold over time that includes a measure of the total order value

2. Orders by attributes of products sold

The solution must minimize update times when interacting with visuals in the report. What should you do first?

A. From Power Query, merge the Orders query and the Order Line Hems query.

B. Calculate the count of orders per product by using a DAX function.

C. Create a calculated column that adds a list of product categories to the Orders table by using a DAX function.

D. From Power Query, merge the Order Line Items query and the Products query.

Correct Answer: D

https://www.sqlbi.com/articles/header-detail-vs-star-schema-models-in-tabular-and-power-bi/

---

Question 2:

You are creating a sales report in Power Bl for the Northwest region sales territory of your company. Data will come from a view in a Microsoft SQL Server database. A sample of the data is shown in the following table:

The report will facilitate the following analysis:

1. The count of orders and the sum of total sales by Order Date

2. The count of customers who placed an order

3. The average quantity per order

You need to reduce data refresh times and report query times.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Fillet the data to only the Northwest region sales territory.

B. Remove the CustomerKey and ProductKey columns.

C. Remove the TaxAmt and Freight columns.

D. Set the data type for SatesOrderNumber to Decimal Number

Correct Answer: AC

---

Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answers choices, but the text of the scenario is

exactly the same in each question in this series.

Start of repeated scenario

You have a Microsoft SQL Server database that has the tables shown in the Database Diagram exhibit. (Click the Exhibit.)

You plan to develop a Power BI model as shown in the Power BI Model exhibit. (Click the Exhibit).

You plan to use Power BI to import data from 2013 to 2015.

Product Subcategory contains NULL values.

End of repeated scenario.

You implement the Power BI model.

You need to edit the Product Category table query to match the desired Power BI model.

How should you complete the advanced query? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all.

You may need to frag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

---

Question 4:

HOTSPOT

You need to create a Power Bl report. The first page or the report must contain the following two views:

1. Sales By Postal Code

2. Sales by Month

Both views must display a slicer to select a value for a field named Chain.

The Sales By Postal Code view must display a map visual as shown in the following exhibit.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

---

Question 5:

You need to create a Power Bl theme that will be used in multiple reports. The theme will include corporate branding for font size, color, and bar chart formatting.

What should you do?

A. Create a theme as a PBIVIZ file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

B. Create a theme as a JSON file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

C. From Power Bl Desktop, use a built-in report theme.

D. From Power Bl Desktop, customize the current theme.

Correct Answer: D

---

Question 6:

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while

others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

From Power Query Editor, you profile the data shown in the following exhibit.

The IoT GUID and IoT ID columns are unique to each row in the query.

You need to analyze IoT events by the hour and day of the year. The solution must improve dataset performance.

Solution: You split the loT DateTime column into a column named Date and a column named Time.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

---

Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Once the profit and loss dataset is created, which four actions should you perform in sequence to ensure that the business unit analysts see the appropriate profit and loss data? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Scenario: The analysts responsible for each business unit must see all the data the board sees, except the profit and loss data, which must be restricted to only their business unit\’s data. The analysts must be able to build new reports from

the dataset that contains the profit and loss data, but any reports that the analysts build must not be included in the quarterly reports for the board. The analysts must not be able to share the quarterly reports with anyone.

Define roles and rules in Power BI Desktop

You can define roles and rules within Power BI Desktop. When you publish to Power BI, it also publishes the role definitions.

To define security roles, follow these steps.

1. Import data into your Power BI Desktop report, or configure a DirectQuery connection. (step 1: From Power BI Desktop, publish the dataset to powerbi.com)

2. From the Modeling tab, select Manage Roles.

3. From the Manage Roles window, select Create.

(Step 2: From Power BI Desktop, create four roles.)

4. Under Roles, provide a name for the role.

5. Under Tables, select the table to which you want to apply a DAX rule.

6. In the Table filter DAX expression box, enter the DAX expressions. This expression returns a value of true or false. For example: = “Value”. (Step 3: From Power BI Desktop, add Table Filter DAX Expression to the roles.)

7. After you\’ve created the DAX expression, select the checkmark above the expression box to validate the expression.

8. Select Save.

Step 4: From powerbi.com, add role members to the roles.

You can’t assign users to a role within Power BI Desktop. You assign them to the Power BI service.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/admin/service-admin-rls

---

Question 8:

DRAG DROP

You build a report about warehouse inventory data. The dataset has more than 10 million product records from 200 warehouses worldwide.

You have a table named Products that contains the columns shown in the following table.

Warehouse managers report that it is difficult to use the report because the report uses only the product name in tables and visuals. The product name is contained within the ProductDescription column and is always the fourth value.

You need to modify the report to support the warehouse manager’s requirement to explore inventory levels at different levels of the product hierarchy. The solution must minimize the model size.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Power BI Desktop supports the use of inline hierarchy labels. With inline hierarchy labels, you can see hierarchy labels as you expand visuals using the Expand All feature.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/desktop-inline-hierarchy-labels

---

Question 9:

You need to create a Power BI theme that will be used in multiple reports. The theme will include corporate branding for font size, color, and bar chart formatting. What should you do?

A. From Power Bl Desktop, customize the current theme,

B. From Power Bl Desktop, use a built-in report theme.

C. Create a theme as a JSON file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

D. Create a theme as a PBIVlZ file and import the theme into Power Bl Desktop.

Correct Answer: B

---

Question 10:

You have sales data in a star schema that contains four tables named Sales, Customer, Date, and Product. The Sales table contains purchase and ship dates.

Most often, you will use the purchase date to analyze the data, but you will analyze the data by both dates independently and together.

You need to design an imported dataset to support the analysis. The solution must minimize the model size and the number of queries against the data source. Which data modeling design should you use?

A. Use the Auto Date/Time functionality in Microsoft Power BI and do NOT import the Date table.

B. Duplicate the Date query in Power Query and use active relationships between both Date tables.

C. On the Date table, use a reference query in Power Query and create active relationships between Sales and both Date tables in the modeling view.

D. Create an active relationship between Sales and Date for the purchase date and an inactive relationship for the ship date.

Correct Answer: D

Only one relationship can be active.

Note: If you query two or more tables at the same time when the data is loaded, Power BI Desktop attempts to find and create relationships for you. The relationship options Cardinality, Cross filter direction, and Make this relationship active are automatically set.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/transform-model/desktop-create-and-manage-relationships

---

Question 11:

HOTSPOT

You need to create a visualization to meet the reporting requirements of the sales managers.

How should you create the visualization? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Scenario: The sales managers require a visual to analyze sales performance versus sales targets.

Box 1: KPI

A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) is a visual cue that communicates the amount of progress made toward a measurable goal.

Box 2: Sales

Box 3: Date

Time > FiscalMonth. This value will represent the trend.

Box 4: Targets

Reference:

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-kpi

---

Question 12:

You need to get data from the Microsoft SQL Server tables. What should you use to configure the connection\’

A. import that uses a Microsoft account

B. DirectQuery that uses the end-users credentials

C. DirectQuery that uses a database credential

D. Import that uses a database credential

Correct Answer: C

---

Question 13:

You have the dataset shown in the following exhibit.

You need to ensure that the visual shows only the 10 cities that have the highest sales profit. What should you do?

A. Add a Top N filter to the visual.

B. Configure the Sales Profit measure to use the RANKX function.

C. Add a calculated column to the table that uses the TOPN function. In the visual, replace Sales Profit with the calculated column.

D. Add a calculated column to the table that returns the city name if the city is in the top 10, otherwise the calculated column will return “Not in Top 10”. In the visual, replace Sales Profit with the calculated column.

Correct Answer: A

Power BI Top N Filters are useful to display the top-performing records, and Bottom N filters are helpful to display the least-performing records. For example, we can display the top or bottom 10 products by orders or sales.

Note:

Select the Column you want to display the Top Sales Profit Then change the Filter Type of that Column to Top N Fill in the Top / Bottom number field And lastly drag to the By Value filed your Sales Profit

Reference:

https://www.tutorialgateway.org/power-bi-top-10-filters/

---

Question 14:

You have a Power Bl workspace that contains a dataset. a report, and a dashboard. The following groups have access:

1.

External users can access the dashboard.

2.

Managers can access the dashboard and a manager-specific report.

3.

Employees can access the dashboard and a row-level security (RLS) constrained report.

You need all users, including external users, to be able to tag workspace administrators if they identify an issue with the dashboard. The solution must ensure that other users see the issues that were raised.

What should you use?

A. subscriptions

B. comments

C. alerts

D. chat in Microsoft Teams

Correct Answer: A

---

Question 15:

HOTSPOT

You have two Azure SQL databases that contain the same tables and columns.

For each database, you create a query that retrieves data from a table named Customers.

You need to combine the Customer tables into a single table. The solution must minimize the size of the data model and support scheduled refresh in powerbi.com.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Append Queries as New.

There are two primary ways of combining queries: merging and appending. When you have one or more columns that you\’d like to add to another query, you merge the queries.

When you have additional rows of data that you\’d like to add to an existing query, you append the query.

Box 2: Disable loading the query to the data model For every query that loads into the model memory will be consumed. and Memory is our asset in the Model, less memory consumption leads to better performance in most of cases.

The best approach is to disable loading.

---

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Question 1:

DRAG DROP Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 2:

HOTSPOT

In the network design below, where is the MOST secure Local Area Network (LAN) segment to deploy a Wireless Access Point (WAP) that provides contractors access to the Internet and authorized enterprise services?

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

HOTSPOT

Identify the component that MOST likely lacks digital accountability related to information access. Click on the correct device in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Place in order, from BEST (1) to WORST (4), the following methods to reduce the risk of data remanence on magnetic media.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Match the access control type to the example of the control type. Drag each access control type net to its corresponding example.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Given the various means to protect physical and logical assets, match the access management area to the technology.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 7:

DRAG DROP

Place the following information classification steps in sequential order.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 8:

DRAG DROP

A software security engineer is developing a black box-based test plan that will measure the system\’s reaction to incorrect or illegal inputs or unexpected operational errors and situations. Match the functional testing techniques on the left with the correct input parameters on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 9:

DRAG DROP

Drag the following Security Engineering terms on the left to the BEST definition on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 10:

DRAG DROP

Match the types of e-authentication tokens to their description.

Drag each e-authentication token on the left to its corresponding description on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

During the risk assessment phase of the project, the CISO discovered that a college within the University is collecting Protected Health Information (PHI) data via an application that was developed in-house. The college collecting this data is

fully aware of the regulations of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) and is fully compliant. What is the best approach for the CISO?

Below are the common phases to creating a Business Continuity/Disaster Recovery (BC/DR) plan. Drag the remaining BC\DR phases to the appropriate corresponding location.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Match the name of the access control model with its associated restriction.

Drag each access control model to its appropriate restriction access on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 13:

HOTSPOT

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification negotiates how security tokens will be issued, renewed, and validated? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 14:

HOTSPOT

Which Web Services Security (WS-Security) specification maintains a single authenticated identity across multiple dissimilar environments? Click on the correct specification in the image below.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Question 15:

DRAG DROP

Match the objectives to the assessment questions in the governance domain of the Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM).

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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Cisco 500-220 ECMS test

Q#1

What is a feature of distributed Layer 3 roaming?

A. An MX Security Appliance is not required as a concentrator.
B. An MX Security Appliance is required as a concentrator.
C. All wireless client traffic can be split-tunneled.
D. All wireless client traffic is tunneled.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/Architectures_and_Best_Practices/Cisco_Meraki_Best_Practice_Design/Best_Practice_Design__MR_Wireless/Wireless_Layer_3_Roaming_Best_Practices

Q#2

Refer to the exhibit. Which two actions are required to optimize load balancing asymmetrically with a 4:1 ratio between links? (Choose two.)

A. Change the primary uplink to “none”.
B. Add an internet traffic preference that defines the load-balancing ratio as 4:1.
C. Enable load balancing.
D. Set the speed of the cellular uplink to zero.
E. Change the assigned speeds of WAN 1 and WAN 2 so that the ratio is 4:1.

Correct Answer: BC

Q#3

A Cisco Meraki MV camera is monitoring an office and its field of vision currently captures work desks and employee computer screens. However, recording employee computer screens is prohibited by local regulation.

Which feature in Dashboard can be used to preserve the current position of the camera while also meeting regulation requirements?

A. zone exclusion
B. privacy window
C. area or interest
D. sensor crop
E. restricted mode

Correct Answer: E

Q#4

Refer to the exhibit. This Dashboard organization uses Co-Termination licensing model.
What happens when an additional seven APs are claimed on this network without adding licenses?

A. All APs immediately stop functioning.
B. All network devices stop functioning in 30 days.
C. One AP Immediately stops functioning.
D. All APs stop functioning in 30 days.

Correct Answer: B

Q#5

Refer to the exhibit. Which outcome occurs when logging is set to Enabled?

A. Outbound flows are sent to a configured syslog server if a syslog sender is configured for flows.
B. The hits counter within this section is now enabled.
C. This firewall rule is now enabled.
D. Inbound flows are sent to a configured syslog server if a syslog server configured for flows.

Correct Answer: D

Q#6

Which two primary metrics does Meraki Insight use to calculate the Application Performance Score? (Choose two.)

A. Maximum Jitter
B. Total Bandwidth Usage
C. Maximum Latency
D. Per-flow Goodput
E. Application Response Time

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://cloudcontrolled.uk/wp-content/uploads/2018/08/MerakiInsight.pdf (04)

Q#7

Which Cisco Meraki product must be deployed in addition to Systems Manager so that Systems Manager Sentry enrollment can be used?

A. MS Switch
B. Meraki Insight
C. MR Access Point
D. MV Smart Camera

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/blog/tag/systems-manager/page/4/

Q#8

How is high-availability supported for Cisco Meraki devices?

A. Only the MX Security Appliances that use VRRP support high availability.
B. An active/active high-availability pair is recommended for MX Security Appliances.
C. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use VRRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.
D. The MX Security Appliances and MS Series Switches that use HSRP support an active/passive high-availability pair.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/MX/Deployment_Guides/MX_Warm_Spare_-_High_Availability_Pair

Q#9

Which API endpoint clones a new Organization?

A. POST /organizations/clone/{organizationId}
B. PUT /organizations/{organizationId}/clone
C. POST /organizations/{organizationId}/new
D. POST /organizations/{organizationId}/clone

Correct Answer: C

Q#10

For which two reasons can an organization become “Out of License”? (Choose two.)

A. licenses that are in the wrong network
B. more hardware devices than device licenses
C. expired device license
D. licenses that do not match the serial numbers in the organization
E. MR licenses that do not match the MR models in the organization

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://documentation.meraki.com/General_Administration/Licensing/Meraki_Licensing_FAQs

Q#11

Refer to the exhibit. A packet arrives on the VPN concentrator with source IP 10.168.70.3 and destined for IP 10.116.32.4. What is the next hop for the packet, based on this concentrator routing table?

A. The concentrator gateway (10.128.124.62) is the next hop.
B. Not enough detail is available to determine the next hop.
C. The packet is stopped.
D. The Auto VPN peer “Store 1532 ?appliance” is the next hop.

Correct Answer: B

Q#12

Refer to the exhibit. Which IDS/IPS mode is the MX Security Appliance configured for?

A. quarantine
B. prevention
C. detection
D. blocking

Correct Answer: B

Q#13

What is the best practice Systems Manager enrollment method when deploying corporate-owned iOS devices?

A. manual
B. Apple Configurator
C. Sentry enrollment
D. DEP

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://meraki.cisco.com/lib/pdf/meraki_whitepaper_ios.pdf

Q#14

A new application needs to be pushed to all iOS devices. Some devices report “NotNow” in the event log and do not install the application. What does the “NotNow” event indicate?

A. The application requires the most recent iOS version.
B. The device is locked with a passcode.
C. The device cannot connect to Apple servers.
D. The device cannot connect to Cisco Meraki servers.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://community.meraki.com/t5/Mobile-Device-Management/Check-NotNow-Status/td-p/3887

Q#15

A customer wants to use Microsoft Azure to host corporate application servers.
Which feature does the customer get by using a vMX appliance rather than connecting directly to Azure by VPN?

A. malware protection
B. SD-WAN
C. next-generation firewall
D. intrusion prevention

Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1

You have the Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) users shown in the following table.

You create a conditional access policy that has the following settings: The Assignments settings are configured as follows:

-Users and groups: Group1
-Cloud apps: Exchange Online
-Conditions: Include All device states, exclude Device marked as compliant Access controls is set to Block access.

For each of the following statements, select yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1:
Yes. User1 is in Group1. The Conditional Access Policy applies to Group1. The Conditional Access Policy blocks access unless the device is marked as compliant.
BitLocker is disabled for Device1. Device1 is in Group3 which is assigned device Policy1. The BitLocker policy in Policy1 is ‘not configured’ so BitLocker is not required.
Therefore, Device1 is compliant so User1 can access Exchange online from Device1.

Box 2:
No. User1 is in Group1. The Conditional Access Policy applies to Group1. The Conditional Access Policy blocks access unless the device is marked as compliant.
BitLocker is disabled for Device2. Device2 is in Group4 which is assigned device Policy2. The BitLocker policy in Policy2 is ‘Required so BitLocker is required.
Therefore, Device2 is not compliant so User1 cannot access Exchange online from Device2.

Box3:
Yes. User2 is in Group2. The Conditional Access Policy applies to Group1. The Conditional Access Policy does not apply to Group2. So even though Device2 is non-compliant, User2 can access Exchange Online using Device2 because there is no Conditional Access Policy preventing him/her from doing so.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/conditions

QUESTION 2

Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the users shown in the following table.

The tenant includes a security group named Admin1. Admin1 will be used to manage administrative accounts. You need to identify which users can perform the following administrative tasks:

1. Create a guest user account
2. Add User3 to Admin1

Which users should you identify for each task? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

A User Administrator is the only role listed that can create user accounts included Guest user accounts. A Global Administrator can also create user accounts. A User Administrator is also the only role listed that can modify the group membership of users.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/directory-assign-admin-roles

QUESTION 3

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain. The domain contains 2,000 computers that run Windows 10.

You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You implement password hash synchronization and Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Seamless Single Sign-On (Seamless SSO).
You need to ensure that users can use Seamless SSO from Windows 10 computers.

What should you do?

A. Create a conditional access policy in Azure AD.
B. Deploy an Azure AD Connect staging server.
C. Join the computers to Azure AD.
D. Modify the Intranet zone settings by using Group Policy

Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-sso-quick-start

QUESTION 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
You suspect that several Office 365 features were recently updated.
You need to view a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant.
Solution: You use Monitoring and reports from the Compliance admin center.

Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

Depending on what your organization\’s Office 365 subscription includes, the Dashboard in Security and Compliance includes several widgets, such as Threat Management Summary, Threat Protection Status, Global Weekly Threat Detections, Malware, etc.

The Compliance admin center in Microsoft 365 contains much of the same information but also includes additional entries focusing on alerts, data insights.

The Monitoring and reports section from the Compliance admin center does not display a list of the features that were recently updated in the tenant so this solution does not meet the goal.

To meet the goal, you need to use the Message center in the Microsoft 365 admin center.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/message-center?view=o365-worldwide

QUESTION 5

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named Contoso. local. The domain contains five domain controllers.

Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.onmicrosoft.com.

You plan to implement pass-through authentication.
You need to prepare the environment for the planned implementation of pass-through authentication.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Modify the email address attribute for each user account.
B. From the Azure portal, add a custom domain name.
C. From Active Directory Domains and Trusts, add a UPN suffix.
D. Modify the User logon name for each user account.
E. From the Azure portal, configure an authentication method.
F. From a domain controller, install an Authentication Agent.

Correct Answer: BCF

To implement pass-through authentication, you need to install and configure Azure AD Connect.

The on-premise Active Directory domain is named Contoso. local. Before you can configure Azure AD Connect, you need to purchase a routable domain, for example, contoso.com. You then need to add the domain contoso.com to Microsoft as a custom domain name.

The user accounts in the Active Directory domain need to be configured to use the domain name contoso.com as a UPN suffix. You need to add contoso.com to the Active Directory first by using Active Directory Domains and Trusts to add contoso.com add a UPN suffix. You can then configure each account to use the new UPN suffix.

An Authentication Agent is required on a domain controller to perform the authentication when pass-through authentication is used.

When the custom domain and user accounts are configured, you can install and configure Azure AD Connect. An Authentication Agent is installed when you select the pass-through authentication option in the Azure AD Connect configuration or you can install the Authentication Agent manually.

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-pta-quick-start

QUESTION 6

Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains five domain controllers.

Your company purchases Microsoft 365 and creates a Microsoft Azure Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Contoso. Microsoft, com.

You plan to establish federation authentication between on-premises Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant by using Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS).

You need to establish a federation.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

The on-premises Active Directory domain is named contoso.com. Before you can configure federation authentication between on-premises Active Directory and the Azure AD tenant, you need to add the domain contoso.com to Microsoft 365.

You do this by adding a custom domain name.
The next step is to establish the federation. You can configure AD FS by using Azure AD Connect.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-install-custom#configuring-federation-withad-fs

QUESTION 7

Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com that includes the users
shown in the following table.

Group2 is a member of Group1.
You assign a Microsoft Office 365 Enterprise E3 license to Group1.
How many Office 365 E3 licenses are assigned?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: C

Group-based licensing currently does not support groups that contain other groups (nested groups). If you apply a license to a nested group, only the immediate first-level user members of the group have the licenses applied.

Therefore, User2 will not be assigned a license.
When Azure AD assigns group licenses, any users without a specified usage location inherit the location of the directory. Therefore, User3 will be assigned a license and his usage location will be set to the location of the directory.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/licensing-groups-assign
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/users-groups-roles/licensing-group-advanced

QUESTION 8

You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. A user named User1 has files on a Windows 10 device is shown in the following table.

In Azure Information Protection, you create a label named Label1 that is configured to apply automatically. Label1 is configured as shown in the following exhibit.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

The phrase to match is “im” and it is case sensitive. The phrase must also appear at least twice.
Box 1: No
File1.docx contain the word “import” once only
Box 2: Yes
File2.docx contains two occurrences of the word “import” as well as the word “imported”
Box 3: No
File3.docx contains “IM” but he is not the correct letter case.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/information-protection/configure-policy-classification

QUESTION 9

SIMULATION
Please wait while the virtual machine loads. Once loaded, you may proceed to the lab section. This may take a few minutes, and the wait time will not be deducted from your overall test time.

When the Next button is available, click it to access the lab section. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste, ability to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.

Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task.

Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.

Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to the lab.

You may now click next to proceed to the lab.
Lab information Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign inbox and click on the username below.

To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.

Microsoft 365 Username:
[email protected]
Microsoft 365 Password: 3andYWyjse-6-d
If the Microsoft 365 portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser tab.

The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 10887751
You hire a new Microsoft 365 administrator named Nestor Wilke. Nestor Wilke will begin working for your organization in several days.

You need to ensure that Nestor Wilke is prevented from using his account until he begins working.

A. See below.

Correct Answer: A

You need to sign in status for the account to ‘Blocked’. Blocking doesn\’t stop the account from receiving email and it doesn\’t deletes any data.

1. On the home page of the Microsoft 365 admin center, type the user\’s name into the Search box.
2. Select the Nestor Wilke account in the search results.
3. In the ‘Sign-in status’ section of the account properties, click the Edit link.
4. Select ‘Block the user from signing in and click the Save button.

QUESTION 10

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

Your company has a main office and three branch offices. All the branch offices connect to the main office by using a WAN link. The main office has a high-speed Internet connection. All the branch offices connect to the Internet by using the
main office connection.

Users use Microsoft Outlook 2016 to connect to a Microsoft Exchange Server mailbox hosted in the main office.

The users report that when the WAN link in their office becomes unavailable, they cannot access their mailbox.

You create a Microsoft 365 subscription and then migrate all the user data to Microsoft 365.

You need to ensure that all the users can continue to use Outlook to receive email messages if a WAN link fails.

Solution: You deploy a site-to-site VPN from each branch office to Microsoft Azure.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

The question states that the branch offices connect to the Internet by using the main office connections. Therefore, all Internet traffic goes over the WAN link between the branch office and the main office. After the migration, the users connect to their mailboxes hosted in Exchange Online over the Internet and therefore over the WAN link.

If the WAN link goes down, the branch office users will not be able to connect to the Internet and therefore will not be able to access their email using Outlook.

A site-to-site VPN from each branch office to Microsoft Azure would still use the WAN link so this answer does achieve the goal.

The solution is to add a direct connection to the Internet from the branch offices, so their Internet traffic does not go over the WAN link.

QUESTION 11

HOTSPOT
Your network contains an on-premises Active Directory domain named adatum.com that syncs to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) by using the Azure AD Connect Express Settings. Password writeback is disabled.

You create a user named User1 and enter Pass in the Password field as shown in the following exhibit.

The Azure AD password policy is configured as shown in the following exhibit.
Hot Area:

Box 1: Yes
The question states that User1 is synced to Azure AD. This tells us that the short password (Pass) meets the on-premise Active Directory password policy and you were able to create the on-premise account for User1. The on-premise Active Directory password policy applies over the Azure AD password policy for synced user accounts.

Box 2: No
Self-Service Password Reset would need to be configured.

Box 3: Yes
The password for the Azure AD User1 account will expire after 90 days according to the Azure AD password policy. If the on-premise password policy has a shorter password expiration period, User1 would have the change his/her on-premise AD password. The new password would then sync to Azure AD.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-install-express

QUESTION 12

Your company recently purchased a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You enable Microsoft Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) for all 500 users in the Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.

You need to generate a report that lists all the users who completed the Azure MFA registration process.

What is the best approach to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.

A. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-AzureADUser cmdlet.
B. From Azure Cloud Shell, run the Get-MsolUser cmdlet.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Usage and insights blade.
D. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, use the Risky sign-ins blade.

Correct Answer: B

You can use the Get-MsolUser cmdlet to generate a report that lists all the users who completed the Azure MFA registration process.

The full command would look like this:
Get-MsolUser -All | Where-Object {$_.StrongAuthenticationMethods.Count -eq 0} | Select-Object -Property UserPrincipalName

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/howto-mfa-reporting

QUESTION 13

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses a default named contoso.com. Three files were created on February 1, 2019, as shown in the following table.

On March 1, 2019, you create two retention labels named Label1 and label2.
The settings for Label1 are configured as shown in the Label1 exhibit. (Click the Label1 tab.) Label 1

The settings for Label2 are configured as shown in the Label1 exhibit. (Click the Label2 tab.) Label 2

You apply the retention labels to Exchange email, SharePoint sites, and OneDrive accounts. For each of the following
statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: No Retention overrides deletion.

Box 2: No
Content in a document library will be moved to the first-stage Recycle Bin within 7 days of disposition, and then permanently deleted another 93 days after that. Thus 100 days in total.

Box 3: No
Items in an Exchange mailbox will be permanently deleted within 14 days of disposition.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/labels
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/disposition-reviews

QUESTION 14

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to your on-premises network.

Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you configure the Organization profile settings.
Does this meet the goal?

A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

You need to configure a trusted location and a conditional access policy.

Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.

Reference:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-andOneDrive-for/ba-p/46678

QUESTION 15

You have an on-premises web application that is published by using a URL of https://app.contoso.local.
You purchase a Microsoft 365 subscription.

Several external users must be able to connect to the web application.
You need to recommend a solution for external access to the application. The solution must support multi-factor authentication.

Which two actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. From an on-premises server, install a connector and then publish the app.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, enable an Application Proxy.
C. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, create a conditional access policy.
D. From an on-premises server, install an Authentication Agent.
E. Republish the web application by using https://app.contoso.com.

Correct Answer: AB

Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) has an Application Proxy service that enables users to access on-premises applications by signing in with their Azure AD account. The application proxy enables you to take advantage of Azure AD security features like Conditional Access and Multi-Factor Authentication.

To use Application Proxy, install a connector on each Windows server you\\’re using with the Application Proxy service.

The connector is an agent that manages the outbound connection from the on-premises application servers to the Application Proxy in Azure AD.

Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/application-proxy-add-on-premises-application

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QUESTION 1
A security analyst is preparing for the company\\’s upcoming audit. Upon review of the company\\’s latest vulnerability
scan, the security analyst finds the following open issues: Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for
remediation FIRST?

A. ICMP timestamp request remote date disclosure
B. Anonymous FTP enabled
C. Unsupported web server detection
D. Microsoft Windows SMB service enumeration via \srvsvc
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A nuclear facility manager determined the need to monitor utilization of water within the facility. A startup company just
announced a state-of-the-art solution to address the need for integrating the business and ICS network. The solution
requires a very small agent to be installed on the ICS equipment. Which of the following is the MOST important security
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A. Run a penetration test on the installed agent.
B. Require that the solution provider make the agent source code available for analysis.
C. Require through guides for administrator and users.
D. Install the agent for a week on a test system and monitor the activities.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which of the following systems or services is MOST likely to exhibit issues stemming from the Heartbleed vulnerability
(Choose two.)
A. SSH daemons
B. Web servers
C. Modbus devices
D. TLS VPN services
E. IPSec VPN concentrators
F. SMB service
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 4
Organizational policies require vulnerability remediation on severity 7 or greater within one week. Anything with a
severity less than 7 must be remediated within 30 days. The organization also requires security teams to investigate the
details of a vulnerability before performing any remediation. If the investigation determines the finding is a false positive,
no remediation is performed and the vulnerability scanner configuration is updates to omit the false positive from future
scans:
The organization has three Apache web servers:

Which of the following actions should the security team perform?
A. Ignore the false positive on 192.168.1.22
B. Remediate 192.168.1.20 within 30 days
C. Remediate 192.168.1.22 within 30 days
D. Investigate the false negative on 192.168.1.20
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
After reviewing the following packet, a cybersecurity analyst has discovered an unauthorized service is running on a
company\\’s computer.

Which of the following ACLs, if implemented, will prevent further access ONLY to the unauthorized service and will not
impact other services?
A. DENY TCP ANY HOST 10.38.219.20 EQ 3389
B. DENY IP HOST 10.38.219.20 ANY EQ 25
C. DENY IP HOST192.168.1.10 HOST 10.38.219.20 EQ 3389
D. DENY TCP ANY HOST 192.168.1.10 EQ 25
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A centralized tool for organizing security events and managing their response and resolution is known as:
A. SIEM
B. HIPS
C. Syslog
D. Wireshark
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An analyst suspects a large database that contains customer information and credit card data was exfiltrated to a known
hacker group in a foreign country. Which of the following incident response steps should the analyst take FIRST?
A. Immediately notify law enforcement, as they may be able to help track down the hacker group before customer
information is disseminated.
B. Draft and publish a notice on the company\\’s website about the incident, as PCI regulations require immediate
disclosure in the case of a breach of PII or card data.
C. Isolate the server, restore the database to a time before the vulnerability occurred, and ensure the database is
encrypted.
D. Document and verify all evidence and immediately notify the company\\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) to
better understand the next steps.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A security analyst received several service tickets reporting that a company storefront website is not accessible by
internal domain users. However, external users are accessing the website without issue. Which of the following is the
MOST likely reason for this behavior?
A. The FQDN is incorrect.
B. The DNS server is corrupted.
C. The time synchronization server is corrupted.
D. The certificate is expired.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The security team has determined that the current incident response resources cannot meet management\\’s objective
to secure a forensic image for all serious security incidents within 24 hours. Which of the following compensating
controls can be used to help meet management\\’s expectations?
A. Separation of duties
B. Scheduled reviews
C. Dual control
D. Outsourcing
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A company that is hiring a penetration tester wants to exclude social engineering from the list of authorized activities.
Which of the following documents should include these details?
A. Acceptable use policy
B. Service level agreement
C. Rules of engagement
D. Memorandum of understanding
E. Master service agreement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A threat intelligence feed has posted an alert stating there is a critical vulnerability in the kernel. Unfortunately, the
company\\’s asset inventory is not current. Which of the following techniques would a cybersecurity analyst perform to
find all affected servers within an organization?
A. A manual log review from data sent to syslog
B. An OS fingerprinting scan across all hosts
C. A packet capture of data traversing the server network
D. A service discovery scan on the network
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
During a routine network scan, a security administrator discovered an unidentified service running on a new embedded
and unmanaged HVAC controller, which is used to monitor the company\\’s datacenter:

The enterprise monitoring service requires SNMP and SNMPTRAP connectivity to operate. Which of the following
should the security administrator implement to harden the system?
A. Patch and restart the unknown service.
B. Segment and firewall the controller\\’s network.
C. Disable the unidentified service on the controller.
D. Implement SNMPv3 to secure communication.
E. Disable TCP/UDP ports 161 through 163.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An analyst is observing unusual network traffic from a workstation. The workstation is communicating with a known
malicious site over an encrypted tunnel. A full antivirus scan with an updated antivirus signature file does not show any
sign of infection. Which of the following has occurred on the workstation?
A. Zero-day attack
B. Known malware attack
C. Session hijack
D. Cookie stealing
Correct Answer: A

Reason for selection

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